SALEM
SALEM STUDY SYSTEM
Exams > 2019 NRC Written Exam

2019 NRC Written Exam

⚠️ DRAFT

2019 NRC Written Exam

Overview

  • Exam: SALEM 2019 NRC Exam — 17-01 ILOT
  • RO Questions: 75
  • SRO-Only Questions: 25

View Exam PDF

RO Questions

Q1 — RCP Starting Requirements 003 RCPS-K6.14 (2.6)
Given:
- Unit 2 is in MODE 5
- ALL RCPs are stopped
- The crew is preparing to start 23 RCP in accordance with S2.OP-SO.RC-0001 (REACTOR COOLANT PUMP OPERATION)

Considering ONLY the following plant conditions below:
1. Pressurizer level is less than 92%
2. ALL Steam Generator secondary side temperatures are less than 50°F above any RCS Cold Leg temperature

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

With one or more RCS Cold Leg temperatures less than or equal to 312°F, _(1)_ conditions shall be met before starting 23 RCP.

Starting 23 RCP when the start criteria are NOT met will result in _(2)_.
A. (1) BOTH (2) degradation of the RCP motor due to a larger motor starting current
B. (1) BOTH (2) an RCS pressure transient caused by energy addition from the secondary system
C. (1) at least one of the (2) degradation of the RCP motor due to a larger motor starting current
D. (1) at least one of the (2) an RCS pressure transient caused by energy addition from the secondary system
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. IAW S2.OP-SO.RC-0001 (REACTOR COOLANT PUMP OPERATION) Limitations, with one or more RCS Cold Leg temperatures less than or equal to 312°F, at least one of conditions shall be met before starting 23 RCP. Starting 23 RCP when the start criteria are NOT met will result in an RCS pressure transient caused by energy addition from the secondary system.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that both conditions must be met to start the 23 RCP. For Part 2, protecting the RCP motor is a valid concern and there are design features of the RCPs and starting duty requirements which protect the RCP motor. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that starting 23 RCP when the start criteria are NOT met will result in degradation of the RCP motor due to a larger motor starting current.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that both conditions must be met to start the 23 RCP. Part 2 is correct.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, protecting the RCP motor is a valid concern and there are design features of the RCPs and starting duty requirements which protect the RCP motor. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that starting 23 RCP when the start criteria are NOT met will result in degradation of the RCP motor due to a larger motor starting current.
Ref: S2.OP-SO.RC-0001 | LO: NOS05RCPUMP-13 | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q2 — High RCS Activity CVCS Response 004 CVCS-A2.09 (3.0)
Given:
- Unit 1 is at 100% Reactor Power and stable
- The crew is performing S1.OP-AB.RC-0002 (High Activity In Reactor Coolant System)
- 11 Charging Pump is in service
- 1CV4 (75 GPM ORIFICE) is in service
- Chemistry has just reported that the confirmatory sample has confirmed increasing activity in the RCS but below LCO 3.4.9 (Specific Activity) limits

In accordance with S1.OP-AB.RC-0002, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The crew _(1)_ required to place the 13 Charging Pump in service and then secure the 11 Charging Pump.

In addition to 1CV4, the crew will also place _(2)_ in service.
A. (1) is (2) 1CV3 (45 GPM ORIFICE)
B. (1) is (2) 1CV5 (75 GPM ORIFICE)
C. (1) is NOT (2) 1CV3 (45 GPM ORIFICE)
D. (1) is NOT (2) 1CV5 (75 GPM ORIFICE)
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW S1.OP-AB.RC-0002 Step 3.14, the crew is required to have a Centrifugal Charging Pump (CCP) in service. Consequently, the crew is NOT required to place the 13 Charging Pump (PDP) in service then secure the 11 Charging Pump. For Part 2 and IAW S1.OP-AB.RC-0002 Step 3.16, the crew is required to maximize letdown flow. Consequently, in addition to 1CV4, the crew is required to also place 1CV3 (45 GPM ORIFICE) in service.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the 13 Charging pump must be placed in service when performing S1.OP-AB.RC-0002. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the 13 Charging pump must be placed in service when performing S1.OP-AB.RC-0002. For Part 2, the candidate could know that letdown will be maximized in S1.OP-AB.RC-0002 Step 3.16 but incorrectly conclude that BOTH 75 gpm orifices will be placed in service.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 2, the candidate could know that letdown will be maximized in S1.OP-AB.RC-0002 Step 3.16 but incorrectly conclude that BOTH 75 gpm orifices will be placed in service.
Ref: S1.OP-AB.RC-0002 (High Activity In Reactor Coolant System) | LO: NOS05ABRC02-05 | Source: Modified Bank (ILOT 1601 NRC RO Q69) | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q3 — CVCS Malfunction Rod Response [EDITED] 004 CVCS-K3.01 (2.5)
Given:
- Unit 1 is 90% Reactor Power and stable
- The Rod Bank Selector Switch is in AUTOMATIC

At Time 07:00
- An AUTOMATIC RCS Makeup starts

At Time 07:01
- 125 VDC power to 1CV179 (PRIMARY WATER FLOW) has been lost
- The Primary Water Flow Deviation Alarm actuates

At Time 07:02
- 1CV185 (MAKEUP FLOWPATH) fails to AUTOMATICALLY close

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The Primary Water Flow Deviation Alarm actuates when primary water flow is greater than a MINIMUM of ±_(1)_ gpm above the setpoint.

Control Rods are expected to step _(2)_ as the makeup continues with 1CV179 in its failed position.

NOTE: Auto Rods Out has been disabled. When answering, assume "out" means manually withdrawing rods.
A. (1) 5.0 (2) out (manually)
B. (1) 5.0 (2) in
C. (1) 0.8 (2) out (manually)
D. (1) 0.8 (2) in
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW S2.OP-AR-ZZ-0012, the Primary Water Flow Deviation Alarm actuates when primary water flow is greater than a MINIMUM of ±5.0 gpm above the setpoint. For Part 2, 1CV179 fails closed. Consequently, actual boron flow out of the boric acid blender will higher than the predetermined setpoint for the auto makeup (based on current RCS Boron concentration). This will cause actual RCS boron concentration to rise since the boron concentration of auto makeup flow is higher than the setpoint for the existing RCS Boron concentration. An increase in actual RCS Boron concentration will insert negative reactivity which will cause Tavg to lower. As Tavg lowers, control rods will step out (manually) to restore Tavg to program temperature.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 1CV179 fails open. With 1CV179 fully open during an automatic RCS makeup, actual RCS Boron Concentration will lower. Lowering actual RCS Concentration will add positive reactivity which will cause the Tavg to rise. As Tavg rises, control rods will step in to restore Tavg to program temperature.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the Boric Acid Flow Deviation actuates when boric acid flow is greater than a MINIMUM of ±0.8 gpm above the setpoint. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the Primary Water Flow Deviation Alarm actuates when primary water flow is greater than a MINIMUM of ±0.8 gpm above the setpoint. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the Boric Acid Flow Deviation actuates when boric acid flow is greater than a MINIMUM of ±0.8 gpm above the setpoint. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the Primary Water Flow Deviation Alarm actuates when primary water flow is greater than a MINIMUM of ±0.8 gpm above the setpoint. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 1CV179 fails open. With 1CV179 fully open during an automatic RCS makeup, actual RCS Boron Concentration will lower. Lowering actual RCS Concentration will add positive reactivity which will cause the Tavg to rise. As Tavg rises, control rods will step in to restore Tavg to program temperature.
Ref: Drawing 224443, S2.OP-AR-ZZ-0012 | LO: NOS05CVCS00-17 | Source: Modified Bank (ILOT 1601 NRC RO Q31) | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q4 — RHR Solid Plant Pressure Response 005 RHRS-K5.05 (2.7)
Given:
- Unit 2 is in MODE 5 with solid plant pressure control
- BOTH Trains of RHR are in service providing RCS cooling
- 2CV8 (RHR Purification Flow Control Valve) is throttled open
- RCS pressure is being controlled at 300 psig with 2CV18 (Low Pressure Letdown Control Valve) in MANUAL

At time 19:00
- The NCO manually adjusts the following RHR valves:
  - 22RH18 (RHR HX Outlet Valve) is throttled MORE CLOSED
  - 2RH20 (RHR HX Bypass Valve) is throttled MORE OPEN
  - 21/22SJ49 flow remains constant

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

As RCS temperature responds to the RHR system adjustments, RCS pressure will INITIALLY _(1)_.

The NCO will then manually throttle 2CV18 MORE _(2)_ to restore RCS pressure to 300 psig.
A. (1) rise (2) CLOSED
B. (1) rise (2) OPEN
C. (1) lower (2) CLOSED
D. (1) lower (2) OPEN
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. For Part 1 and since flow through 22 RHR HX is lowered (when 22RH18 is throttled more closed), RCS temperature will rise. With the plant water solid, this will cause RCS pressure to initially rise (since water is incompressible). For Part 2, solid plant pressure control is maintained by holding charging flow constant and adjusting letdown flow. To lower RCS pressure during solid plant operations, letdown flow must be raised (with a constant charging flow). Consequently, the operator must throttle 2CV18 more open to restore RCS pressure to 300 psig.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could have a misunderstanding how solid plant pressure control works and incorrectly conclude that throttle 2CV-18 more closed will restore RCS pressure to 300 psig.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that RCS temperature will initially lower (which will also cause RCS pressure to lower) based on the adjustment to the RHR System. Part 2 would be correct if RCS pressure had actually lowered.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that RCS temperature will initially lower (which will also cause RCS pressure to lower) based on the adjustment to the RHR System. For Part 2, the candidate could have a misunderstanding how solid plant pressure control works and incorrectly conclude that throttle 2CV-18 more open will restore RCS pressure to 300 psig (when RCS pressure was too low).
Ref: NOS05RHR000-16, NOS05CVCS00-17 | LO: NOS05CVCS00-17 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q5 — ECCS/CCW SEC Mode III 006 ECCS-K1.11 (2.8)
Given:
- Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power
- 21 and 22 CCW Pumps are in service

At time 12:00
- A Reactor Trip and Safety Injection have occurred coincident with a LOOP

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

At 12:01, the SECs are operating in _(1)_.

After the SECs have completed their loading, 21 and 22 CCW Pumps will be _(2)_.
A. (1) Mode II (2) running
B. (1) Mode II (2) stopped
C. (1) Mode III (2) running
D. (1) Mode III (2) stopped
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. For Part 1, the SECs will be operating in Mode 3 (SI + Blackout) following a Reactor Trip and Safety Injection coincident with a LOOP. For Part 2, the CCW Pumps will not automatically start as part of SEC Mode 3 loading.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the SECs have 4 modes of operation. SEC Mode 2 operation is only for a Station Blackout. Given there is a Station Blackout as part of the questions stem, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the SECs are operating in Mode 3. For Part 2, CCW cools several ECCS components (RHR Pumps, RHR HX and SI Pumps). Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that with a SI and LOOP in progress, the SECs will automatically restart the CCW Pumps.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the SECs have 4 modes of operation. SEC Mode 2 operation is only for a Station Blackout. Given there is a Station Blackout as part of the questions stem, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the SECs are operating in Mode 3. Part 2 is correct.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, CCW cools several ECCS components (RHR Pumps, RHR HX and SI Pumps). Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that with a SI and LOOP in progress, the SECs will automatically restart the CCW Pumps.
Ref: NOS05RHR000-16, NOS05CVCS00-17 | LO: NOS05ECCS00-09 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q6 — PRT Temperature and Cooling 007 PRTS-A1.03 (2.6)
Given:
- Unit 2 is at 100% Power
- PRT Temperature and Level are slowly rising

At time 15:00
- The Crew initiates performance of S2.OP-SO.PZR-0003 (PRESSURIZER RELIEF TANK OPERATION) Section 5.3, "Reducing PRT Temperature by Feed and Bleed"

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below concerning cooling of the PRT?

Leakage from the Reactor _(1)_ is causing PRT temperature to rise.

When performing S2.OP-SO.PZR-0003 Section 5.3, the liquid in the PRT will be pumped to the _(2)_.
A. (1) Head Vents (2) RCDT
B. (1) Head Vents (2) HUT
C. (1) Flange Leakoff (2) RCDT
D. (1) Flange Leakoff (2) HUT
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. For Part 1, the Reactor head vents drain to the PRT and will cause PRT temperature to rise (with the Reactor at power). For Part 2, during the performance of S2.OP-SO.PZR-0003 Section 5.3, the liquid in the PRT will be pumped to the HUT using a RCDT Pump.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the drain of the PRT is physically connected to the RCDT. However, a check valve is situated in between the PRT drain and the RCDT. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly recall the piping and pump layout between the PRT and RCDT and incorrectly conclude that during performance of S2.OP-SO.PZR-0003 Section 5.3, the liquid in the PRT will be pumped to the RCDT.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, Reactor Flange Leakoff is directed to the RCDT. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that Reactor Flange Leakoff actually drains to the PRT which would cause PRT temperature to rise. For Part 2, the drain of the PRT is physically connected to the RCDT. However, a check valve is situated in between the PRT drain and the RCDT. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly recall the piping and pump layout between the PRT and RCDT and incorrectly conclude that during performance of S2.OP-SO.PZR-0003 Section 5.3, the liquid in the PRT will be pumped to the RCDT.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, Reactor Flange Leakoff is directed to the RCDT. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that Reactor Flange Leakoff actually drains to the PRT which would cause PRT temperature to rise. Part 2 is correct.
Ref: NOS05PZRPRT-06 | LO: NOS05PZRPRT-06 | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q7 — PZR Heatup Rate and PRT Pressure 007 PRTS-K5.02 (3.1)
Given:
- Unit 2 Pressurizer is water solid

At time 12:00
- The crew is performing a Pressurizer heatup in accordance with S2.OP-SO.RC-0002 (VACUUM REFILL OF THE RCS) Section 5.4, "Establishing Pressurizer Steam Bubble Without A Vacuum In RCS"

At time 13:00
- The crew has opened 2PR1 (PZR PORV) for Pressurizer degassing in accordance with S2.OP-SO.RC-0002 Section 5.4

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

In accordance with LCO 3.4.10.2 (Pressurizer), the MAXIMUM allowable Pressurizer heatup rate is _(1)_ °F per hour.

During the Pressurizer degassing, the crew will open and close 2PR1 to maintain PRT pressure less than a MAXIMUM of _(2)_ psig.
A. (1) 100 (2) 10
B. (1) 100 (2) 25
C. (1) 200 (2) 10
D. (1) 200 (2) 25
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW LCO 3.4.10.2, the MAXIMUM allowable Pressurizer heatup rate is 100°F per hour. For Part 2 and IAW S2.OP-SO.RC-0002 Section 5.4, during the Pressurizer degassing, the crew will open and close 2PR1 to maintain PRT pressure less than a MAXIMUM of 10 psig.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, 25 psig is a pressure that is below the PRT rupture disc setpoint of 100 psig and close to the actual limit. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that S2.OP-SO.RC-0002 Section 5.4 requires PRT pressure to be maintained less than a maximum of 25 psig.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, LCO 3.4.10.2 allows a maximum pressurizer cooldown of 200°F per hour. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that LCO 3.4.10.2 allows a maximum pressurizer heatup of 200°F per hour. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, LCO 3.4.10.2 allows a maximum pressurizer cooldown of 200°F per hour. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that LCO 3.4.10.2 allows a maximum pressurizer heatup of 200°F per hour. For Part 2, 25 psig is a pressure that is below the PRT rupture disc setpoint of 100 psig and close to the actual limit. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that S2.OP-SO.RC-0002 Section 5.4 requires PRT pressure to be maintained less than a maximum of 25 psig.
Ref: LCO 3.4.10.2, S2.OP-SO.RC-0002 Section 5.4 | LO: NOS05CVCS00-17 | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q8 — CCW Radiation Monitor Response 008 CCWS-A2.04 (3.3)
Given:
- Unit 2 is in MODE 3

At time 15:00:00
- BOTH 2R17A/B (Component Cooling Process Monitors) have just come into HI alarm

At time 15:01:00
- The crew initiates S2.OP-AB.CC-0001 (Component Cooling Abnormality) and S2.OP-AB.RAD-0001 (Abnormal Radiation)

At time 15:15:00
- Chemistry has verified a rise in Component Cooling activity

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

At 15:00:30, 2CC149 (Surge Tank Vent Valve) is _(1)_.

If CCW Surge Tank overflows, then the in-service Waste Holdup Tank _(2)_ will become contaminated.
A. (1) open (2) and the 22 ABV Exhaust Filter Unit
B. (1) open (2) ONLY
C. (1) closed (2) and the 22 ABV Exhaust Filter Unit
D. (1) closed (2) ONLY
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. For Part 1, 2CC149 automatically closes on high radiation alarm on 2R17A/B. For Part 2, IAW S2.OP-AB.CC-0001 Step 3.8 NOTE, "Allowing CCW Surge Tank to overflow will contaminate the in-service Waste Holdup Tank and the 22 ABV Exhaust Filter Unit".
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 2CC149 is normally open and the candidate could not recall that 2CC149 closes when 2R17A/B being in alarm. Consequently at 15:00:30, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 2CC149 is open. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 2CC149 is normally open and the candidate could not recall that 2CC149 closes when 2R17A/B being in alarm. Consequently at 15:00:30, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 2CC149 is open. For Part 2, the candidate could fail to recognize the 22 ABV Exhaust Filter Unit will also become contaminated when the CCW Surge Tank overflows.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could fail to recognize the 22 ABV Exhaust Filter Unit will also become contaminated when the CCW Surge Tank overflows.
Ref: NOS05CCW000-11 | LO: NOS05CCW000-11 | Source: Bank (ILOT NRC 1601 RO Q7) | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q9 — PZR Level Variable Leg Leak 010 PZR PCS-K1.08 (3.2)
Given:
- Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power and stable
- 2LT-459 (Channel I PZR Level) is the controlling PZR Level channel

At time 15:00
- The VARIABLE LEG on the D/P cell for 2LT-459 develops a large leak

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

INDICATED PZR LEVEL (from 2LT-459) will indicate off scale _(1)_.

PZR B/U Heaters _(2)_ energize as ACTUAL PZR PRESSURE lowers below the setpoint.
A. (1) high (2) will
B. (1) high (2) will NOT
C. (1) low (2) will NOT
D. (1) low (2) will
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. For Part 1, the variable leg for 2LT-459 is the low side of the D/P cell. Accordingly, as D/P across 2LT-459 PSID gets larger then indicated PZR level lowers (or as D/P across 2LT-459 goes to 0, then indicated level will be at its maximum). Therefore, with a leak of the variable leg of 2LT-459, D/P will get larger and indicated PZR level will indicate off scale low. Additionally, PZR inventory is also being lost, so actual PZR level and indicated level are both lowering. NOTE, as PZR pressure lowers due to the variable leg leak, this change in pressure is felt on both sides of 2LT-459. Indicated level due to the PZR pressure change will not affect PZR indicated level. For Part 2, the variable leg is connected to the pressurizer. Consequently, when the variable leg develops a leak, actual PZR pressure will lower but since the controlling channel has failed low, the B/U heaters will not energize (indicated level is below 17% which is the low level PZR B/U cutoff setpoint).
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, many of the licensed operators have demonstrated a misunderstanding on how PZR level instrumentation works (D/P = 0 psid = hi pressurizer level) as demonstrated on the 2018 LOR Bi-Annual Written Exams. Consequently, the ILOT candidate could incorrectly determine that with a variable leg leak on 2LT-459, indicated PZR level will indicate off scale high. Part 2 is correct if level indicated high (heaters would not cut off).
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, many of the licensed operators have demonstrated a misunderstanding on how PZR level instrumentation works. Consequently, the ILOT candidate could incorrectly determine that with a variable leg leak on 2LT-459, indicated PZR level will indicate off scale high. For Part 2, the candidate could fail to recall that PZR B/U heaters automatically cut off when PZR level indicates less than 17%.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could fail to recall that PZR B/U heaters automatically cut off when PZR level indicates less than 17%.
Ref: NOS05PZRP&L-10 | LO: NOS05CCW000-11 | Source: Modified Bank (ILOT NRC 1601 RO 32) | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q10 — PORV Constant Enthalpy Expansion 010 PZR PCS-K5.02 (2.6)
Given:
- A Unit 2 shutdown is in progress
- Pressurizer pressure is 415 psig and slowly lowering
- There is a suspected leak by of 2PR1 (PZR PORV)
- PRT pressure is 0 psig

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

If 2PR1 is leaking by, then the expected PORV tailpipe temperature will be approximately ___ °F.
A. 212
B. 280
C. 330
D. 450
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. Leak by of 2PR1 is a constant enthalpy expansion process through a valve. Using steam tables and with PZR pressure at 415 psig (430 psia), the hg is approximately 1205 BTU/lbm. Using the Mollier diagram, the throttling process will go from 415 psig to 0 psig with hg (1205 BTU/lbm) remaining constant. This will correspond to a tailpipe temperature of approximately 330°F.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Since the Mollier Diagram is very complex to read and interpret then any temperature between 212 and 450°F is plausible. 212°F is the boiling point for water/steam at 0 psig and 450°F is boiling point for water/steam at 515 psig.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Since the Mollier Diagram is very complex to read and interpret then any temperature between 212 and 450°F is plausible. 212°F is the boiling point for water/steam at 0 psig and 450°F is boiling point for water/steam at 515 psig.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Since the Mollier Diagram is very complex to read and interpret then any temperature between 212 and 450°F is plausible. 212°F is the boiling point for water/steam at 0 psig and 450°F is boiling point for water/steam at 515 psig.
Ref: GFES Bank | LO: NOS05PZRPRT-046 | Source: Bank (GFES Bank - Thermodynamic Processes P677) | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q11 — Containment Pressure Channel Loss 012 RPS-A3.03 (3.4)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power
• Containment Pressure Channel II has failed high and it has been removed from service in accordance with the applicable procedure

At time 15:00
• Power is lost to Containment Pressure Channel III

At 15:01, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

A Reactor Trip and Safety Injection _(1)_ AUTOMATICALLY actuated.
Containment Spray _(2)_ AUTOMATICALLY actuated.
A. (1) have   (2) has NOT
B. (1) have   (2) has
C. (1) have NOT   (2) has NOT
D. (1) have NOT   (2) has
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. When Containment Pressure Channel II was removed from service, the logic for Safety Injection and Reactor Trip (on Hi CTMT Pressure) went from 2/3 to 1/2 and the logic for Containment Spray (on Hi CTMT Pressure) went from 2/4 to 2/3. For Part 1, Containment Channels II, III and IV provide the input for the Safety Injection Logic (and Reactor Trip). Additionally, bi-stables for Safety Injection and Reactor Trip are de-energize to actuate. Consequently, when Containment Pressure Channel III loses power at 15:00, Safety Injection will actuate (1/2 logic is met). For Part 2, when Containment Pressure Channel III loses power, Containment Spray will not actuate (2/3 logic is not met).
✗ B. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2 the candidate could incorrectly conclude that based on plant conditions, the logic for Containment Spray is met and Containment Spray has actuated.
✗ C. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that after Containment Pressure II was removed from service that the coincidence for SI went to 2/2. Consequently, the candidate would then incorrectly conclude that SI has not actuated. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that after Containment Pressure II was removed from service that the coincidence for SI went to 2/2. Consequently, the candidate would then incorrectly conclude that SI has not actuated. For Part 2 the candidate could incorrectly conclude that based on plant conditions, the logic for Containment Spray is met and Containment Spray has actuated.
Ref: NOS05ESF000-02 (Introduction to Engineered Safety Features and Design Criteria), DWG 221057 | LO: NOS05ESF000-02 LO 21 — State the setpoints for automatic actuations associated with the Engineered Safety Features | Source: Modified Bank (ILOT 1601 AUDIT RO 16) | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q12 — ECCS Pump Power Supplies 013 ESFAS-K2.01 (3.6)
Given:
At time 10:00:00
• A Reactor Trip and Safety Injection have occurred coincident with a LOOP at Unit 2
• EDG 2C can NOT be started

At 10:15:00, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

22 RHR Pump is _(1)_ and 22 SI Pump is _(2)_.
A. (1) stopped   (2) running
B. (1) stopped   (2) stopped
C. (1) running   (2) running
D. (1) running   (2) stopped
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. 22 RHR pump is powered from 2B 4KV Vital Bus and 22 SI Pump is powered from 2C 4KV Vital Bus. Additionally, 2C EDG can not be started after the LOOP occurs. Consequently, 15 minutes after a reactor trip and safeguards have occurred (coincident with the LOOP), 2A and 2B Vital Buses are being powered from EDG 2A and EDG 2B and all of the appropriate ECCS loads have been loaded onto the running EDGs. Therefore, at 10:15:00, 22 RHR Pump is running and 22 SI Pump is stopped.
✗ A. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 22 RHR pump is powered from 2C 4KV Vital Bus. This would result in the candidate incorrectly deducing that at 10:15:00, the 22 RHR Pump is stopped. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 22 SI pump is powered from 2B 4KV Vital Bus. This would result in the candidate incorrectly deducing that at 10:15:00, the 22 SI Pump is running.
✗ B. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 22 RHR pump is powered from 2C 4KV Vital Bus. This would result in the candidate incorrectly deducing that at 10:15:00, the 22 RHR Pump is stopped. Part 2 is correct.
✗ C. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 22 SI pump is powered from 2B 4KV Vital Bus. This would result in the candidate incorrectly deducing that at 10:15:00, the 22 SI Pump is running.
Ref: NOS054KVAC0-08 (4160 Electrical System) | LO: NOS054KVAC0-08 LO 9 — State the setpoints, coincidence, blocks and permissives for automatic actuations associated with the 4160 Electrical System | Source: Modified Bank (ILOT NRC 1601 RO 22) | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q13 — CFCU Power Supplies 022 CCS-K2.01 (3.0)
Given:
• A Reactor Trip and Safety Injection have occurred at Unit 1
• 1A 4KV Vital Bus is de-energized

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

ONLY ___ CFCU(s) is/are stopped.
A. 11 and 12
B. 11
C. 15
D. 14 and 15
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. With 1A 4KV Vital bus de-energized, ONLY 11 CFCU is stopped.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Since there are 5 CFCUs powered from 3 vital buses, any distractor that has one or two CFCUs stopped is plausible.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. Since there are 5 CFCUs powered from 3 vital buses, any distractor that has one or two CFCUs stopped is plausible.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Since there are 5 CFCUs powered from 3 vital buses, any distractor that has one or two CFCUs stopped is plausible.
Ref: NOS054KVAC0-08 (4160 Electrical System) | LO: NOS05CONTMT-15 LO 17 — State the power supply to Containment and Containment Support Systems components, including voltage level and 1E/Non 1E (CFCU breaker alignment for Fast and Slow speed) | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q14 — Containment Spray Reset 026 CSS-K4.05 (3.5)
Given:
• An AUTOMATIC Safety Injection and Containment Spray Actuation have occurred
• A MANUAL backup of the Containment Spray Actuation has NOT been performed
• The crew is preparing to reset Containment Spray in accordance with 2-EOP-LOCA-1 (LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT)

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The NCO will reset one train of Containment Spray by ___
A. depressing bezel button B ONLY
B. turning key switches A AND C in the clockwise direction 180 degrees ONLY
C. depressing bezel button B then turning key switches A AND C in the clockwise direction 180 degrees
D. turning key switches A AND C in the clockwise direction 180 degrees and then pressing bezel button B
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. Resetting one train of Containment Spray is accomplished by depressing bezel button B.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Not all bezel buttons in the control room actually perform an action. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that rotating key switches A and C only will reset one train of Containment Spray.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that resetting one train of Containment Spray requires a combination of key switch and bezel button actuations.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that resetting one train of Containment Spray requires a combination of key switch and bezel button actuations.
Ref: NOS05CSPRAY-06 (Containment Spray System) | LO: NOS05CSPRAY-06 LO 18 — Identify and describe the Control Room controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Containment Spray System | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q15 — EOP-LOCA-5 CS Pumps Required 026 CSS-G2.1.25 (3.9)
Given:
REFERENCE PROVIDED
• The crew is performing 2-EOP-LOCA-5 (LOSS OF EMERGENCY RECIRCULATION) Step 6
• 2B 4KV Vital Bus is de-energized and locked out
• Containment Sump Level is 55%
• 21SJ44 (SUMP VALVE) and 22SJ44 (SUMP VALVE) are BOTH closed
• RWST Level is 10 Feet and lowering
• Containment Pressure is 19 psig

In accordance with 2-EOP-LOCA-5, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The crew's NEXT action will be to ___
A. add makeup to the RWST
B. stop BOTH Containment Spray Pumps
C. stop ONLY ONE Containment Spray Pump
D. IMMEDIATELY RETURN TO PROCEDURE IN EFFECT
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. IAW 2-EOP-LOCA-5 Step 6 Table B, NO TRAINS of Emergency Recirculation are available. Consequently, the candidate must analyze 2-EOP-LOCA-5 Steps 6.1 through 9 and Table C to determine if any of the CS Pumps are required to be stopped. Based on Table C and Step 9 with Containment Pressure = 19 psig, RWST Level equal to 10 feet, and only 3 CFCUs running in slow speed (with 2B 4KV Vital Bus de-energized and locked out, ONLY 3 CFCUs are running in slow speed), 0 CS Pumps are required. Consequently, the crew will stop BOTH Containment Spray Pumps.
✗ A. The candidate could correctly analyze Table B and then incorrectly analyze Table C to determine that both CS Spray Pumps are required. This would then cause the candidate to incorrectly conclude that the crew's NEXT action will be to add makeup to the RWST (2-EOP-LOCA-5 Step 10).
✗ C. The candidate could correctly analyze Table B and then incorrectly analyze Table C to determine that only one CS Spray Pump is required. This would then cause the candidate to incorrectly conclude that the crew's NEXT action will be to stop ONLY ONE Containment Spray Pump (2-EOP-LOCA-5 Step 9).
✗ D. The candidate could incorrectly analyze Table B. This would then cause the candidate to incorrectly conclude that the crew's NEXT action will be to IMMEDIATELY RETURN TO PROCEDURE IN EFFECT (2-EOP-LOCA-5 Step 6).
Ref: 2-EOP-LOCA-5 (Loss of Emergency Recirculation) | LO: NOS05LOCA05-04 LO 7 — Determine a discrete path through the EOP for Loss of Emergency Recirculation | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q16 — AFW Pump Start with Local Manual 039 MRSS-A4.04 (3.8)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power
• ALL AFW Pump Controllers are in the "LOCAL MANUAL" alignment

At time 12:00
• A Reactor Trip and Safety Injection occurs

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

At 12:05, ___ AFW Pump(s) is/are running.
A. ALL
B. NO
C. ONLY 21 and 22
D. ONLY 23
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. With ALL of the AFW Pump Controllers in LOCAL MANUAL, all automatic AFW starts are disabled except those starts initiated from by the SECs. At 12:00 when the Safety Injection occurs, the SECs will actuate in Mode 1 which will send an automatic start signal to ONLY 21 and 22 AFW pumps. Consequently, at 12:05, ONLY 21 and 22 AFW pumps are running.
✗ A. The candidate could correctly determine that with ALL of the AFW Pump Controllers in LOCAL MANUAL, all automatic AFW starts are disabled except those starts initiated from by the SECs. The candidate could then incorrectly conclude that ALL of the AFW pumps receive an automatic start signal from the SECs which would then cause the candidate to incorrectly conclude at 12:05, ALL AFW Pumps are running.
✗ B. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that with ALL of the AFW Pump Controllers in LOCAL MANUAL, all automatic AFW starts are disabled (including those starts initiated from by the SECs). This would then cause the candidate to incorrectly conclude at 12:05, NO AFW Pumps are running.
✗ D. The candidate could correctly determine that with ALL of the AFW Pump Controllers in LOCAL MANUAL, all automatic AFW starts are disabled except those starts initiated from by the SECs. The candidate could then incorrectly conclude that ONLY 23 AFW pump receives an automatic start signal from the SECs which would then cause the candidate to incorrectly conclude at 12:05, ONLY 23 AFW Pump is running.
Ref: DWG 221064 | LO: NOS05AFW000-16 LO 8 — Identify and describe the Control Room controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Auxiliary Feedwater System | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q17 — SGFP Trip Load Reduction 059 MFW-AA2.06 (2.7)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power and stable

At time 09:00:00
• 22 SGFP trips

At time 09:00:15 (15 seconds later)
• The crew enters S2.OP-AB.CN-0001 (MAIN FEEDWATER/CONDENSATE SYSTEM ABNORMALITY)
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power

In accordance with S2.OP-AB.CN-0001, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The crew will initiate a MANUAL Main Turbine load reduction until less than or equal to a MAXIMUM of _(1)_ % Turbine Power at a rate less than or equal to a MAXIMUM of _(2)_ %/MIN.
A. (1) 50   (2) 30
B. (1) 50   (2) 15
C. (1) 66   (2) 30
D. (1) 66   (2) 15
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. IAW S2.OP-AB.CN-0001, the crew will initiate a Main Turbine load reduction until less than or equal to a MAXIMUM of 66% Turbine Power at a rate less than or equal to a MAXIMUM of 15%/MIN.
✗ A. For Part 1, there are only two SGFPs. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that each SGFP provides 50% total flow. Consequently when 22 SGFP trips, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that S2.OP-AB.CN-0001 requires a load reduction to 50% Turbine Power. For Part 2, a loss of stator cooling water will cause an automatic turbine runback at 30%/minute. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the maximum turbine load ramp in S2.OP-AB.CN-0001 is 30%/MIN.
✗ B. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that each SGFP provides 50% total flow and S2.OP-AB.CN-0001 requires a load reduction to 50% Turbine Power. Part 2 is correct.
✗ C. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the maximum turbine load ramp in S2.OP-AB.CN-0001 is 30%/MIN (confusing with the stator cooling water loss automatic runback rate).
Ref: NOS05ABCN01-06 (Main Feedwater/Condensate System Abnormality) | LO: NOS05ABCN01-06 LO 2 — State the immediate actions of AB.CN-0001 | Source: Modified Bank (ILOT 1601 NRC RO Q17) | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q18 — SGFP Turbine Overspeed Trip 059 MFW-K4.05 (2.5)
Given:
Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The Steam Generator Feed Pumps have a Turbine Overspeed Trip that prevents the turbine from exceeding a MAXIMUM of ___ rpm.
A. 1944
B. 1980
C. 5500
D. 6080
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. The Steam Generator Feed Pumps have a Turbine Overspeed interlock that prevents the turbine from exceeding a MINIMUM of 6080 rpm.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. The main turbine has a 108% overspeed trip (1944 RPM).
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. The main turbine has a 110% overspeed trip (1980 RPM).
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. 5500 RPM is the design capacity for a SGFP.
Ref: S2.OP-SO.CN-0002 (Steam Generator Feed Pump Operation) | LO: NOS05CN&FDW-16 LO 8 — Identify and describe the Control Room controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Condensate and Feedwater System | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q19 — AFW SEC Mode 2 Start 061 AFW-K2.02 (3.7)
Given:
At time 16:00
• Unit 2 is at 15% Reactor Power
• 21 SGFP is running

At time 16:01
• 2B 4KV Vital Bus de-energizes and 2B SEC starts its blackout sequencing
• A Reactor Trip occurs

The following parameters vary over time:
Time16:0016:0116:0216:0416:05
21 SG NR Level (%)33.120.721.522.723.7
22 SG NR Level (%)33.320.621.322.423.5
23 SG NR Level (%)33.119.617.615.514.4
24 SG NR Level (%)33.019.618.216.114.6
21 SGFP StatusRunningRunningRunningRunningRunning

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

At 16:05, ___ AFW Pump(s) is/are running.
A. NO Motor Driven
B. BOTH Motor Driven
C. ONLY 22
D. ONLY 21
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. MDAFW Pumps will automatically start under the following situations: SG Level lo-lo (2/3 on 1/4 SGs <14%), Both SGFP trip, AMSAC (associated train), SEC (all modes). Since 2B SEC has actuated in Mode 2 and 22 AFW Pump is powered from 2B 4KV Vital Bus, the 22 AFW will be running at 16:05. (SEC loading should be completed by 16:01)
✗ A. Because ALL SG NR levels are above 14%, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that NO Motor Driven AFW Pumps are running at 16:05.
✗ B. Since 2 out of 4 SG NR levels are below 16% (Reactor Trip Setpoint for LO-LO SG NR Level), the candidate could incorrectly conclude that BOTH Motor Driven AFW Pumps are running at 16:05.
✗ D. The candidate could correctly determine that the SEC operating in Mode 2 will start an AFW pump. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that 21 AFW Pump is powered from 2B Vital Bus and that ONLY 21 AFW Pump is running at 16:05.
Ref: NOS05AFW000-16 (Auxiliary Feedwater System) | LO: NOS05AFW000-16 LO 5 — State the power supply to Motor-driven AFW Pumps | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q20 — AFW Pressure Override Runout Protection 061 AFW-K6.02 (2.6)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 4% Reactor Power
• 21 and 22 AFW Pumps are feeding ALL SGs using 21-24AF21 with the following bezel indications:
  PRESSURE OVERRIDE NORMAL LIGHT is illuminated

At time 12:00
• 21 AFW Pump trips

Which ONE of the following describes the INITIAL response of the AFW System?

NOTE:
• 21-24AF21 = STEAM GENERATOR INLET VALVEs
• 21-24AF11 = STEAM GENERATOR INLET VALVEs
A. 23-24AF21 will remain in its current position and AFW flow to 23 and 24 SGs will lower to 0 LBM/HR
B. 23-24AF21 will AUTOMATICALLY close and AFW flow to 23 and 24 SGs will lower to 0 LBM/HR
C. 23 AFW will IMMEDIATELY start and will now provide feed flow to 23 and 24 SGs through 23-24AF21
D. 23-24AF21 will AUTOMATICALLY close, 23 AFW will IMMEDIATELY start and will now provide feed flow to 23 and 24 SGs through 23-24AF11
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. Since the "Pressure Override Normal Light" for 21 AFW Pump is illuminated, 21 AFW Pump Runout protection is enabled. With runout protection enabled, 23AF21 and 24AF21 will go closed (and be prevented from being opened if the valves are already closed) when 21 AFW Pump discharge pressure is below 1085 psig. Consequently, when 21 AFW Pump Trips at 1200, 21 AFW discharge pressure will go to 0 psig. The result is that 23AF21 and 24AF21 will AUTOMATICALLY close and AFW flow to 23 and 24 SGs will go to 0 LBM/HR.
✗ A. If the "Pressure Override Defeat" light had been illuminated for 21 AFW Pump, then when 21 AFW Pump tripped at 1200, 23-24AF21 would not move and AFW flow to 23 and 24 SGs would go to 0 LBM/HR.
✗ C. 23 AFW pump does have an AUTOMATIC start feature. However, trip of a MDAFW pump will not cause the 23AFW to immediately start.
✗ D. This distractor is partially correct. 23-24AF21 will automatically close when 21 AFW pump trips. Additionally, 23 AFW pump does have an AUTOMATIC start feature. However, trip of a MDAFW pump will not cause the 23AFW to immediately start.
Ref: NOS05AFW000-16 (Auxiliary Feedwater System) | LO: NOS05AFW000-16 LO 6 — Outline the interlocks associated with AFW System components including pump automatic start, MDAFW recirculation flow control valves, and MDAFW discharge flow control valves | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q21 — 4KV SPT Breaker Spurious Open 062 A.C. Electrical Distribution-K3.01 (3.5)
Given:
• Unit 2 is MODE 3
• 2A 4KV Vital Bus is powered from 23 SPT
• 2B and 2C 4KV Vital Buses are powered from 24 SPT

Subsequently
• 23ASD (23 SPT Supply Breaker to 2A 4KV Vital Bus) SPURIOUSLY opens

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

After the electrical transient is complete, the 2A 4KV Vital Bus will be ___
A. de-energized
B. powered from 2A EDG with the blackout loads loaded by the 2A SEC
C. powered from the 24 SPT and the 2A EDG will NOT start
D. powered from the 24 SPT and the 2A EDG will start and remained unloaded
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. With 23 SPT at normal voltage when 23ASD spuriously opens, the 23SPT transfer relay remains energized and an AUTOMATIC transfer of the 2A 4KV Vital Bus to the 24 SPT will not occur. Consequently, the 2A 4KV Bus will de-energize and the 2A EDG will start and power the bus in accordance with the 2A SEC operating in Mode II*.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Since the 23SPT transfer relay remains energized, the operator may incorrectly determine that the 24 SPT and 2A EDG transfer scheme is defeated causing the 2A 4KV Bus to remain de-energized.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. This is the expected result if the 23 SPT transfer relay had de-energized.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. This would be partially correct if the 23 SPT transfer relay had de-energized.
Ref: NOS054KVAC0-08 (4160 ELECTRIC SYSTEM) | LO: Given a 4160 Electrical System failure, predict the effect on off-site power sources and Emergency Diesel Generators | Source: Bank | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q22 — DC Battery SBO Duration 063 DC Electrical Distribution System-A1.01 (2.5)
Given:
Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

During a STATION BLACKOUT and with the vital batteries discharging at their MAXIMUM rate, the vital batteries will supply DC power to emergency equipment for AT LEAST ___ hour(s).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. During a STATION BLACKOUT, the vital batteries will supply DC power to emergency equipment for AT LEAST 2 hours.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. All of the distractors are time frames that are close to 2 hours. Therefore, all of the distractors are plausible.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. All of the distractors are time frames that are close to 2 hours. Therefore, all of the distractors are plausible.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. All of the distractors are time frames that are close to 2 hours. Therefore, all of the distractors are plausible.
Ref: NOS05DCELEC-09 (DC ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS) | LO: Describe the design bases of the DC Electrical System | Source: Bank (ILOT 1601 NRC RO Q28) | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q23 — SEC Actuation With RP4 Loss 063 DC Electrical Distribution System-G2.2.44 (2.5)
Given:
• Unit 1 is at 100% Reactor Power
• ALL AC and DC power to the 1RP4 panel has been lost
• ALL 1RP4 indication lights are OFF

At time 12:00
• A Reactor Trip and Safety Injection occurs

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

At 12:00, The SECs will ___
A. NOT AUTOMATICALLY actuate
B. AUTOMATICALLY actuate in Mode 3
C. AUTOMATICALLY actuate in Mode 2
D. AUTOMATICALLY actuate in Mode 1
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. 1RP4 is the main panel in the control room that gives a visual status of all safety related equipment including the Safeguard Equipment Controllers (SECs). Since 1RP4 is not safety related, the interface between the SECs and 1RP4 is isolated. Consequently, when a Reactor Trip and Safety Injection occurs, the SECs will automatically actuate in Mode 1.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. If DC power had been lost to a control room Bezel (e.g. AFW Control Bezel), then the components controlled by that Bezel could not been operated using the Bezel (manual and automatic functions). The candidate could apply this same logic to 1RP4 and incorrectly conclude that with DC power lost to 1RP4, then all equipment associated with 1RP4 can not be operated.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. The distractor is partially correct and the SECs can operate in Modes 1 through 4. However, for the given plant conditions, the SECs will not operate in Mode 3.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. The distractor is partially correct and the SECs can operate in Modes 1 through 4. However, for the given plant conditions, the SECs will not operate in Mode 2.
Ref: Notification 20787762, NOS05SEC000-07 (SAFEGUARDS EQUIPMENT CONTROL SYSTEM) | LO: Identify and describe the Control Room controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Safeguards Equipment Control System | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q24 — EDG Load Rating and Room Temperature 064 Emergency Diesel Generator (ED/G) System-A1.05 (2.5)
Given:
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below concerning the 2A EDG?

The 2A EDG can be run at a MAXIMUM of _(1)_ KW for 2000 hours.

During operation of the 2A EDG, the Diesel Area Ventilation will ensure the 2A EDG Room does not exceed a MAXIMUM of _(2)_ °F.
A. _(1)_ 2750 / _(2)_ 120
B. _(1)_ 2750 / _(2)_ 90
C. _(1)_ 2600 / _(2)_ 120
D. _(1)_ 2600 / _(2)_ 90
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. For Part 1, the 2A EDG can be run at a MAXIMUM of 2750 KW for 2000 hours. For Part 2, during operation of the 2A EDG, the Diesel Area Ventilation will ensure the 2A EDG Room does not exceed a MAXIMUM of 120 °F.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, 90 °F is close to the actual limit and is a reasonable distractor given the importance of the EDGs.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 2600 KW is the continuous rating of the 2A EDG. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 2600 KW is the continuous rating of the 2A EDG. For Part 2, 90 °F is close to the actual limit and is a reasonable distractor given the importance of the EDGs.
Ref: NOS05EDG000-12 (EMERGENCY DIESEL GENERATORS) | LO: Outline the interlocks associated with EDG components including EDG Ventilation System | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q25 — Plant Vent Radiation Monitor 2R41 073 Process Radiation Monitoring (PRM) System-A4.01 (3.9)
Given:
• A LBLOCA has occurred on Unit 2
• The crew is evaluating the Plant Vent Effluent display to determine if a radiological release is in progress:

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

2R41 ___ is the ONLY control room indication that reads out in µCi / sec and can be used to determine if a radiological release is in progress.
A. Channel A
B. Channel B
C. Channel C
D. Channel D
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. 2R41 Channel D is the ONLY control room indication that reads out in µCi/sec and can be used to determine if a radiological release is in progress for notification to State and Local Agencies.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Since there is 4 Channels for 2R41, the candidate could select Channels A, B or C.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Since there is 4 Channels for 2R41, the candidate could select Channels A, B or C.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. Since there is 4 Channels for 2R41, the candidate could select Channels A, B or C.
Ref: NOS05RMS000-17 (RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEM) | LO: Identify and describe the Control Room controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Radiation Monitoring System | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q26 — SW122 Fail Position 076 Service Water System (SWS)-K4.03 (3.9)
Given:
Considering ONLY the following plant conditions below:
1. A loss of control air to 21SW122 (21 CC Hx Control Valve)
2. SEC Mode III Operation
3. A loss of 125 VDC power to 21SW122 (21 CC Hx Control Valve)

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

Condition(s) ___ will cause 21SW122 to go FULLY OPEN.
A. 1 ONLY
B. 2 ONLY
C. 2 and 3 ONLY
D. 1 and 3 ONLY
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. ONLY a loss of control air to 21SW122 will cause 21SW122 to go FULLY OPEN.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. ALL 3 possible conditions listed in the question stem will cause 21SW122 to either go fully closed or fully open. Consequently, all of the distractors are plausible.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. ALL 3 possible conditions listed in the question stem will cause 21SW122 to either go fully closed or fully open. Consequently, all of the distractors are plausible.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. ALL 3 possible conditions listed in the question stem will cause 21SW122 to either go fully closed or fully open. Consequently, all of the distractors are plausible.
Ref: NOS05SWONUC-14 (SERVICE WATER - NUCLEAR HEADER) | LO: Describe the function of Component Cooling Heat Exchangers and SW122, SW127, SW380/383, SW376/379 and how their normal and abnormal operation affects the Service Water - Nuclear Header System | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q27 — CA330 Operability and Isolation Setpoint 078 Instrument Air System (IAS)-G2.2.38 (3.6)
Given:
Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

In accordance with LCO 3.6.3 (Containment Isolation Valves), the 21CA330 (Control Air Isolation Valve) and 22CA330 (Control Air Isolation Valve) are required to be OPERABLE in _(1)_.

The 21CA330 and 22CA330 will automatically close when Containment Pressure FIRST exceeds _(2)_ psig.
A. _(1)_ ALL MODES / _(2)_ 4
B. _(1)_ ALL MODES / _(2)_ 15
C. _(1)_ MODES 1-4 ONLY / _(2)_ 4
D. _(1)_ MODES 1-4 ONLY / _(2)_ 15
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW LCO (3.6.3), the CA330s (Control Air Isolation Valves) are required to be OPERABLE in MODES 1-4 ONLY. For Part 2, The CA330s will automatically close on a Phase A Containment Isolation. A Phase A Containment Isolation signal is generated when Containment Pressure FIRST exceeds 4 psig.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, there are other LCOs that are applicable in ALL MODES. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that LCO 3.6.3 is applicable in ALL MODES. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, there are other LCOs that are applicable in ALL MODES. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that LCO 3.6.3 is applicable in ALL MODES. For Part 2, 15 psig is the setpoint for a Phase B Containment Isolation Signal. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that the CA330s close on a Phase B Containment Isolation Signal.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, 15 psig is the setpoint for a Phase B Containment Isolation Signal. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that the CA330s close on a Phase B Containment Isolation Signal.
Ref: LCO 3.6.3, NOS05CONAIR-12 (CONTROL AIR SYSTEM) | LO: Given a situation dealing with Control Air System operability, examine the situation and apply the appropriate Technical Specification action | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q28 — Containment Airlock Interlock 103 Containment System-K4.04 (2.5)
Given:
In accordance with LCO 3.6.1.3 (Containment Air Locks), which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The Containment Airlock interlock mechanisms for BOTH Containment Airlocks are required to be OPERABLE when Unit 2 is in _(1)_.

If a Containment Airlock with only the Containment Airlock interlock mechanism is inoperable, then the crew must verify an OPERABLE door is _(2)_ in the affected air lock WITHIN 1 hour.
A. _(1)_ MODES 1-4 ONLY / _(2)_ closed ONLY
B. _(1)_ MODES 1-4 ONLY / _(2)_ closed and locked
C. _(1)_ ALL MODES / _(2)_ closed ONLY
D. _(1)_ ALL MODES / _(2)_ closed and locked
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. For Part 1 and in accordance with LCO 3.6.1.3 (Containment Air Locks), the Containment Airlock interlock mechanisms for BOTH Containment Airlocks are required to be OPERABLE when Unit 2 is in MODES 1-4 ONLY. For Part 2 and in accordance with LCO 3.6.1.3 (Containment Air Locks) REQUIRED ACTION B.1, if a containment air lock with only the containment air lock interlock mechanism is inoperable, then verify an OPERABLE door is closed only in the affected air lock within 1 hour.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, LCO 3.6.1.3 REQUIRED ACTION B.2 has a requirement to lock an OPERABLE door closed in the affected air lock within 24 hours.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the Containment Airlock interlock mechanisms for BOTH Containment Airlocks are required to be OPERABLE when Unit 2 is in ALL MODES. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the Containment Airlock interlock mechanisms for BOTH Containment Airlocks are required to be OPERABLE when Unit 2 is in ALL MODES. For Part 2, LCO 3.6.1.3 REQUIRED ACTION B.2 has a requirement to lock an OPERABLE door closed in the affected air lock within 24 hours.
Ref: LCO 3.6.1.3, NOS05CONTMT-15 (CONTAINMENT AND CONTAINMENT SUPPORT SYSTEMS) | LO: Describe the purpose and design basis for Containment Airlocks | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q29 — Rod Control Speed vs Temperature Error 001 Control Rod Drive System-K4.05 (3.9)
Given:
• Unit 1 is 100% Reactor Power

At time 1900
• An AUTOMATIC Turbine Runback occurs

At time 1905
• The crew starts a rapid RCS boration in order to raise the control rods above the Rod Insertion Limit
• The Rod Bank Selector Switch is in AUTO

At time 1910
• The Rod Control Summing Unit has calculated that the magnitude of the TOTAL TEMPERATURE ERROR is 4 °F

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

At 1910 Control Rods are stepping out at ___ steps per minute.
A. 72
B. 40
C. 24
D. 8
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. With Rods in auto, control speed varies based on the total temperature error. With a temperature error of 1.5 °F to 3 °F, rods will move at 8 spm. With a temperature error of 3 °F to 5 °F, rods will move from 8 spm to 72 spm (linearly). This corresponds to an increase of 32 spm / °F. Consequently, with a TOTAL TEMPERATURE ERROR of 4 °F, rods will move 40 spm (8 spm + (32 spm / °F x 1 °F)).
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Since rod control speed can vary from 8 SPM to 72 SPM with Rod Control in automatic, all distractors are plausible.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. Since rod control speed can vary from 8 SPM to 72 SPM with Rod Control in automatic, all distractors are plausible.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Since rod control speed can vary from 8 SPM to 72 SPM with Rod Control in automatic, all distractors are plausible.
Ref: NOS05RODS00-12 (ROD CONTROL AND POSITION INDICATION SYSTEMS) | LO: Draw a one-line diagram of the Reactor Control Unit indicating Temperature Error Circuit, Power Mismatch Circuit, Rate Comparator, Non-Linear Gain Unit, Variable Gain Unit, Summer | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q30 — PR NI Failure and Trip Coincidence 015 Nuclear Instrumentation System (NIS)-A4.03 (3.8)
Given:
• Unit 2 is 100% Reactor Power

At time 1900:00
• 2N41 (Power Range NI) fails high

At time 1900:30 (30 seconds later)
• The crew enters S2.OP-AB.NIS-0001 (NUCLEAR INSTRUMENTATION SYSTEM MALFUNCTION)

At time 1945:00
• 2N41 is placed in tripped condition in accordance with S2.OP-SO.RPS-0001 (NUCLEAR INSTRUMENTATION CHANNEL TRIP / RESTORATION)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

In accordance with S2.OP-AB.NIS-0001 and prior to placing 2N41 in tripped condition, the crew _(1)_ REQUIRED to place the Rod Bank Selector Switch in MAN.

After 1945:00, the coincidence for the PR High Neutron Flux Reactor Trip (based on the remaining functional PR NI Channels) is now _(2)_.
A. _(1)_ is NOT / _(2)_ 1 out of 3
B. _(1)_ is NOT / _(2)_ 2 out of 3
C. _(1)_ is / _(2)_ 1 out of 3
D. _(1)_ is / _(2)_ 2 out of 3
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW S2.OP-AB.NIS-0001, the crew is REQUIRED to place the Rod Bank Selector Switch in MAN. For Part 2 and IAW DWG 221052, after the bi-stable for 2PR41 is tripped (IAW S2.OP-SO.RPS-0001), the coincidence for the PR High Neutron Flux Reactor Trip (based on the remaining functional PR NI Channels) is now 1 out of 3.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, when 2PR41 fails high, this will cause the overpower rod stop block to be enabled (which stops all automatic and manual rod withdrawal). Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that placing rods in Manual is not required IAW S2.OP-AB.NIS-0001. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, when 2PR41 fails high, this will cause the overpower rod stop block to be enabled (which stops all automatic and manual rod withdrawal). Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that placing rods in Manual is not required IAW S2.OP-AB.NIS-0001. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly determine that when 2PR41 is removed from service IAW S2.OP-SO.RPS-0001, this removes the channel from the PR High Neutron Flux Reactor Trip logic. This would then cause the candidate to incorrectly conclude that the logic for the remaining operable channels is 2 out of 3.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly determine that when 2PR41 is removed from service IAW S2.OP-SO.RPS-0001, this removes the channel from the PR High Neutron Flux Reactor Trip logic. This would then cause the candidate to incorrectly conclude that the logic for the remaining operable channels is 2 out of 3.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.NIS-0001, S2.OP-SO.RPS-0001, DWG 221052, NOS05RXPROT-13 (REACTOR PROTECTION SYSTEM) | LO: State the setpoints, coincidence, blocks and permissives for all Reactor Trips and Safety Injections actuations | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q31 — AMSAC Train A AFW Pumps 016 NNIS-K1.06 (3.6)
Given:

• Unit 2 is at 45% Reactor Power

At time 14:00
• A malfunction within AMSAC causes ONLY Train A of AMSAC to actuate

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The actuation of Train A of AMSAC will send an AUTOMATIC start signal to ___ AFW Pump(s).
A. ALL
B. ONLY 21
C. ONLY 21 and 22
D. ONLY 21 and 23
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. The 21 AFW receives an AUTOMATIC start signal when AMSAC Train A actuates. The 22 AFW receives an AUTOMATIC start signal when AMSAC Train B actuates. The 23 AFW receives an AUTOMATIC start signal when either train of AMSAC actuates. Consequently, when ONLY Train A of AMSAC actuates, 21 and 23 AFW Pumps receive an AUTOMATIC start signal.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could not understand how AMSAC circuitry works and incorrectly conclude that ALL AFW pumps receive an AUTOMATIC start signal.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could not understand how AMSAC circuitry works and incorrectly conclude that ONLY 21 pump receives an AUTOMATIC start signal.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could not understand how AMSAC circuitry works and incorrectly conclude that ONLY 21 and 22 AFW pumps receive an AUTOMATIC start signal.
Ref: NOS05AFW000-16 (AUXILIARY FEEDWATER SYSTEM) | LO: NOS05RXPROT-13 (REACTOR PROTECTION SYSTEM), Obj 12 — Outline the interlocks associated with AFW System components: a. AFW Pump Automatic Start | Source: Bank — ILOT 1601 AUDIT RO Q19 | Cognitive: Comprehension/Analysis

Connections

Q32 — Hydrogen Recombiner Power Setting 028 HRPS-K5.04 (2.6)
Given:

REFERENCES PROVIDED

• A LOCA has occurred
• 22 Hydrogen Recombiner is inoperable
• The crew is preparing to place 21 Hydrogen Recombiner in service
    • Containment Temperature PRIOR to the LOCA was 90°F
    • CURRENT Containment Temperature is 120°F
    • CURRENT Containment pressure as indicated on 2PI-948A is 4.0 psig

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The crew will set the 21 Recombiner Power setting to __ KW.
A. 56
B. 54
C. 52
D. 50
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. IAW S2.OP-SO.CAN-0001 Attachment 1 and Attachment 2: Reference Power for 21 Hydrogen Recombiner is 43.68 KW. Power Correction Factor (Cp) per Attachment 2 (RECOMBINER POWER CORRECTION FACTOR CURVE) is 1.21. Power setting = Reference Power x Power Correction Factor (Cp) = 43.68 x 1.21 = 52.85 which is rounded to 54 KW.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. 56 KW is the calculated setting if the candidate correctly used the 21 Hydrogen Recombiner Reference Power (43.68 KW) and incorrectly read Attachment 2 to determine a Power Correction Factor (Cp) of 1.24.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. 52 KW is the calculated setting if the candidate incorrectly used the 22 Hydrogen Recombiner Reference Power (42.63 KW) and correctly read Attachment 2 to determine a Power Correction Factor (Cp) of 1.21.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. 50 KW is the calculated setting if the candidate correctly used the 21 Hydrogen Recombiner Reference Power (43.68 KW) and incorrectly read Attachment 2 to determine a Power Correction Factor (Cp) of 1.15.
Ref: S2.OP-SO.CAN-0001 Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 | Reference provided: S2.OP-SO.CAN-0001 Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 | LO: NOS05CONTMT-15 (CONTAINMENT AND CONTAINMENT SUPPORT SYSTEMS), Obj 3.g — Describe how the Hydrogen Recombiner System impacts Containment Systems | Source: Modified Bank | Cognitive: Comprehension/Analysis

Connections

Q33 — Fuel Handling Crane Rad Monitor 034 FHE-K6.02 (2.6)
Given:

• Fuel Handling activities are in progress in the Fuel Handling Building

At time 0900
• 2R32A (Fuel Handling Crane Radiation Monitor) fails high and the High Radiation Alarm for 2R32A actuates

Considering ONLY the following actions:

1. ALL crane motion is locked out
2. ALL crane motion other than downward movement of suspended load is locked out
3. FHB ventilation is transferred to HEPA and Charcoal Filters and FHB Exhaust Fans are started

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

With 2R32A failed high, ONLY Action(s) ___ will AUTOMATICALLY occur.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 2
D. 1
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. With 2R32A failed high, ONLY Action 2 will AUTOMATICALLY occur. ALL crane motion other than downward movement of suspended load is locked out.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. FHB Ventilation will automatically shift on a high radiation on 2R5 and 2R9. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that a high radiation within the FHB as read by 2R32A would also cause the FHB ventilation to automatically shift. Action 1 is partially correct as discussed in Distractor D.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. FHB Ventilation will automatically shift on a high radiation on 2R5 and 2R9. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that a high radiation within the FHB as read by 2R32A would also cause the FHB ventilation to automatically shift (Action 3). Action 2 will automatically occur.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. This distractor is partially correct. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude With 2R32A failed high, ONLY Action 1 will AUTOMATICALLY occur.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.RAD-0001 | LO: NOS05ABRAD1-06 (ABNORMAL RADIATION), Obj 1.A — Describe the operation of radiation monitors as applied to S2.OP-AB.RAD-0001 including actions that occur as a result of the channel in warning or alarm | Source: New | Cognitive: Fundamental/Memory

Connections

Q34 — Steam Dump I/P Converter Power 041 SDS-K2.02 (2.6)
Given:

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The Steam Dump I/P converters are powered by _(1)_ and a loss of power to the Steam Dump I/P converters will cause the Steam Dumps to fail _(2)_.

(1)(2)
A. (1) C/D 115 VAC Instrument Bus — (2) closed
B. (1) C/D 115 VAC Instrument Bus — (2) as-is
C. (1) A/B 125 VDC Bus — (2) closed
D. (1) A/B 125 VDC Bus — (2) as-is
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. The Steam Dump I/P converters are powered by 115 VAC and a loss of power to the Steam Dump I/P converters will cause the Steam Dumps to fail closed.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, other components in the plant fail as-is when power is lost. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the Steam Dumps fail as-is when power is lost to the I/P converters.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, Steam Dump blocking solenoids are powered from 125 VDC. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the Steam Dump I/P converters are also powered by 125 VDC. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, Steam Dump blocking solenoids are powered from 125 VDC. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the Steam Dump I/P converters are also powered by 125 VDC. For Part 2, other components in the plant fail as-is when power is lost. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the Steam Dumps fail as-is when power is lost to the I/P converters.
Ref: NOS05STDUMP-12 (STEAM DUMP SYSTEM) | LO: NOS05STDUMP-12 (STEAM DUMP SYSTEM), Obj 5 — State the power supply to the following Steam Dump System components: a. Steam Dump System Electro-pneumatic (I/P) converters b. Steam Dump Valve Solenoids | Source: New | Cognitive: Fundamental/Memory

Connections

Q35 — GDT Release 2R41 Auto Closure 071 WGS-A3.03 (3.6)
Given:

• A 24 Gas Decay Tank (GDT) release is in progress in accordance with S2.OP-SO.WG-0011 (DISCHARGE OF 24 GAS DECAY TANK TO PLANT VENT)

At time 12:00
• 2R41 Channel A and Channel D High Radiation Alarms are received in the Control Room

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

At 12:00, ___ will AUTOMATICALLY close which will terminate the 24 GDT release.
A. 24WG34 (GDT STOP TO PLNT)
B. 2WG39 (GDT TO VENT HOR STOP V)
C. 2WG38 (GDT VENT CONTROL VALVE)
D. 2WG41 (GDT VENT CONT V)
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. 2WG41 will automatically close when the 2R41 Channel D High Radiation Alarm actuates.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. All of the distractors are valves that are open during a 24 GDT release. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that any one of the given WG valves would automatically close when 2R41 Channel D High Radiation Alarm actuates.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. All of the distractors are valves that are open during a 24 GDT release. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that any one of the given WG valves would automatically close when 2R41 Channel D High Radiation Alarm actuates.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. All of the distractors are valves that are open during a 24 GDT release. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that any one of the given WG valves would automatically close when 2R41 Channel D High Radiation Alarm actuates.
Ref: NOS05WASGAS-10 (Radioactive Waste Gas) | LO: NOS05WASGAS-10 (Radioactive Waste Gas), Obj 5 — Outline the interlocks associated with the following Radioactive Waste Gas System components: d. Radioactive Gaseous Waste Release Valve 2WG41 | Source: New | Cognitive: Fundamental/Memory

Connections

Q36 — FHB Ventilation 2R9 Alarm 072 ARM-G2.4.31 (4.2)
Given:

• 21 Fuel Handling Area Exhaust Fan is in service
• 22 Fuel Handling Area Exhaust Fan is in standby
• 21 HEPA ONLY Filter Unit is in service
• HEPA 22 PLUS CHAR is in standby

At time 17:00
• 2R9 (Fuel Storage Area Monitor) goes into alarm

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

Five Minutes later at 17:05, _(1)_ Fuel Handling Area Exhaust Fan(s) and _(2)_ Filter Unit(s) is/are in service.

(1)(2)
A. (1) ONLY 21 — (2) ONLY HEPA 22 PLUS CHAR
B. (1) ONLY 21 — (2) 21 HEPA ONLY AND HEPA 22 PLUS CHAR
C. (1) 21 and 22 — (2) ONLY HEPA 22 PLUS CHAR
D. (1) 21 and 22 — (2) 21 HEPA ONLY AND HEPA 22 PLUS CHAR
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. When 2R9 goes into alarm, BOTH Fuel Handling Area Fans receive an auto start signal and 21 HEPA ONLY Filter Unit Isolates while 22 HEPA PLUS CHAR filter unit automatically aligns. Consequently, at 17:05, 21 and 22 Fuel Handling Area Fans and ONLY HEPA 22 PLUS CHAR Filter Unit are in service.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that only the running fan (21) will be in service at 17:05. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that only the running fan (21) will be in service at 17:05. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that BOTH HEPAs will be in service at 17:05.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that BOTH HEPAs will be in service at 17:05.
Ref: S2.OP-AR.ZZ-0001 Alarm A-6 | LO: NOS05FHVENT-09 (FUEL HANDLING AREA VENTILATION), Obj 7 — Describe the interlocks associated with the FHB Ventilation System components: a) Supply Fan Unit b) Exhaust Fan Controls c) Exhaust Filter Units | Source: Bank — ILOT 1601 AUDIT EXAM RO Q37 | Cognitive: Comprehension/Analysis

Connections

Q37 — CW Malfunction Reactor Trip 075 CWS-A2.01 (4.2)
Given:

• Unit 2 is at 25% Reactor Power and rising as part of plant startup

At time 15:00
• The Circulating Water Intake Structure becomes damaged resulting in four of the Circulators becoming out of service

At time 15:01
• The crew enters S2.OP-AB.CW-0001 (CIRCULATING WATER SYSTEM MALFUNCTION)

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

In accordance with S2.OP-AB.CW-0001, the crew is REQUIRED to ___
A. INITIATE a Rapid Load Reduction until condenser vacuum stabilizes within operational limits
B. COMMENCE an IMMEDIATE controlled plant shutdown
C. TRIP the Turbine
D. TRIP the Reactor
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. IAW S2.OP-AB.CW-0001 CAS, with 4 or more circulators out of service AND Reactor Power greater than or equal to P-10 (10%), then the crew is required to TRIP the Reactor.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. When 4 of the 6 circulators become nonfunctional, condenser backpressure will degrade. S2.OP-AB.CW-0001 CAS contains guidance to perform a Rapid Power Reduction to stabilize condenser backpressure. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that given the current plant conditions, a rapid load reduction is required.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. S2.OP-AB.CW-0001 Attachment 7 contains guidance to perform an immediate controlled turbine shutdown. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that given the current plant conditions, a controlled plant shutdown is required.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. S2.OP-AB.CW-0001 CAS contains guidance to trip the turbine if condenser backpressure is outside the allowable operating region and Reactor Power is less than P-9 (49%). Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that given the current plant conditions, a Turbine trip is required.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.CW-0001 | LO: NOS05ABCW01-11 (CIRCULATING WATER SYSTEM MALFUNCTION), Obj 5 — Given a set of initial plant conditions: A. Determine the appropriate abnormal procedure B. Describe the plant response to actions taken C. Describe the final plant condition | Source: New | Cognitive: Comprehension/Analysis

Connections

Q38 — Fire Pump Auto Start and Shutdown 086 FPS-A1.05 (2.9)
Given:

• Firefighting activities are in progress
• Fire Water Header pressure had lowered to a MINIMUM of 80 psig and it is now slowly rising.

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

Fire Pump #1 _(1)_ is/are running.

After firefighting activities are complete, the running Fire Pump(s) can be shutdown LOCALLY _(2)_.

(1)(2)
A. (1) ONLY — (2) or REMOTELY
B. (1) ONLY — (2) ONLY
C. (1) and Fire Pump #2 — (2) or REMOTELY
D. (1) and Fire Pump #2 — (2) ONLY
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. For Part 1, Fire Pump #1 starts when Fire Water Header pressure lowers to 85 psig. Fire Pump #2 will start when Fire Water Header pressure lowers to 75 psig (following a time delay). Consequently, ONLY Fire Pump #1 is running. For Part 2, After firefighting activities are complete, the running Fire Pump(s) can be shutdown LOCALLY ONLY.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, since the fire water pumps can be started locally or remotely, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the running Fire Pump(s) can be shutdown locally or remotely.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that BOTH Fire Water Pumps start when fire water header pressure falls below 85 psig.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that BOTH Fire Water Pumps start when fire water header pressure falls below 85 psig.
Ref: NOS05FIRPRO-09 (FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEM) | LO: NOS05FIRPRO-09 (FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEM), Obj 7 — Identify and describe the local controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Fire Protection System including setpoints | Source: New | Cognitive: Comprehension/Analysis

Connections

Q39 — Pertinent Information Standing Order G2.1.15 (2.7)
Given:

• A Temporary Administrative requirement needs to be implemented for the next 30 days

In accordance with OP-AA-102-104 (PERTINENT INFORMATION PROGRAM), which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The _(1)_ or their designees will prepare and approve a _(2)_ Order to address the Temporary Administrative requirement.

(1)(2)
A. (1) Operations Manager — (2) Standing
B. (1) Operations Manager — (2) Daily
C. (1) Shift Manager — (2) Standing
D. (1) Shift Manager — (2) Daily
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. IAW OP-AA-102-104 (PERTINENT INFORMATION PROGRAM), Operations Management will issue a Standing Order to address the Temporary Administrative requirement. This is because the Temporary Administrative Requirement will last for 30 days. Daily Orders are typically valid for one day, weekend or holiday period.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that a requirement with a relatively short finite date will be controlled as a Daily Order.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the SM has responsibilities per the PERTINENT INFORMATION PROGRAM. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the SM does have the responsibility to prepare and approve Standing and Daily Orders. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the SM has responsibilities per the PERTINENT INFORMATION PROGRAM. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the SM does have the responsibility to prepare and approve Standing and Daily Orders. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that a requirement with a relatively short finite date will be controlled as a Daily Order.
Ref: OP-AA-102-104 (PERTINENT INFORMATION PROGRAM) | LO: None | Source: New | Cognitive: Fundamental/Memory

Connections

Q40 — Steam Dump Bypass Valve Failure G2.1.28 (4.1)
Given:

• Unit 2 is at 60% Reactor Power and stable

At time 10:00:00
• 23TB40 (Turbine Bypass Valve) goes fully open

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

With 23TB40 open, Reactor power will rise _(1)_ 60% power.

Considering ONLY the Steam Dump system design, 23TB40 will FIRST close when depressing BEZEL "OFF & RESET BYPASS TAVG" Pushbutton(s) _(2)_.

(1)(2)
A. (1) and stabilize above — (2) A and B
B. (1) and stabilize above — (2) A or B
C. (1) then stabilize back at — (2) A and B
D. (1) then stabilize back at — (2) A or B
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. For Part 1, ALL TB40 Turbine Bypass Valves are rated for 5.33% flow each. Consequently, when 23TB40 fails open, steam flow from the SGs will increase by 5.33% and Reactor Power will follow SG steam flow. Reactor power will then rise to approximately 65.33%. For Part 2, since the Steam Dump Train A and Train B Arming/Blocking solenoids are in series, depressing BEZEL Pushbutton(s) A OR B will remove air pressure to 23TB40 which will cause the valve to close.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, if the Steam Dump Train A and Train B Arming/Blocking solenoids were in parallel, depressing BEZEL Pushbutton(s) A AND B would be the minimum pushbutton manipulation(s) required to close 23TB40. Additionally, for safety systems, only 1 train is required to be operating for the safety system to perform its safety function. Consequently, the operator could apply this logic to the steam dumps and incorrectly conclude that BOTH Trains of Steam Dumps need to be taken to OFF for 23TB40 to close.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly determine that with the turbine controls initially set at 60% that the turbine control valves will automatically throttle to maintain reactor power/turbine load at 60%. Consequently, the candidate would then incorrectly conclude that when 23TB40 opens that the turbine control valves will automatically throttle more closed which would return reactor power back to the original setting of 60%. For Part 2, the solenoid logic error described in distractor A applies.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly determine that the turbine control valves will automatically compensate. Part 2 is correct.
Ref: NOS05STDUMP-12 (STEAM DUMP SYSTEM) | LO: NOS05STDUMP-12 (STEAM DUMP SYSTEM), Obj 10 — Identify and describe the Control Room controls, indications, and alarms associated with the Steam Dump System | Source: Bank — LOR 2018 BI-ANNUAL WRITTEN EXAM | Cognitive: Comprehension/Analysis

Connections

Q41 — Troubleshooting Conduct G2.2.20 (2.6)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power
• Troubleshooting activities are in progress on CVCS
• Per the troubleshooting plan, some CVCS valves will be manipulated in order to gather data

In accordance with MA-AA-716-004 (CONDUCT OF TROUBLESHOOTING), which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

Manipulation of CVCS valves to support the troubleshooting plan is considered a(n) _(1)_ activity.

_(2)_ is responsible for ensuring the Troubleshooting Log adequately addresses the potential to affect core reactivity.
A. (1) Intrusive (2) Operations
B. (1) Intrusive (2) Engineering
C. (1) Non-Intrusive (2) Operations
D. (1) Non-Intrusive (2) Engineering
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW MA-AA-716-004 (CONDUCT OF TROUBLESHOOTING), Manipulation of CVCS valves to support the troubleshooting plan is considered a(n) Intrusive activity. For Part 2 and IAW MA-AA-716-004 (CONDUCT OF TROUBLESHOOTING), Operations is responsible for ensuring the Troubleshooting Log adequately addresses the potential to affect core reactivity.
✗ B. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, Engineering has responsibilities per MA-AA-716-004 and Engineering performs Unreviewed Safety Questions screenings. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that Engineering would do a USQ screening as part of the troubleshooting plan and the USQ screening would include a reactivity analysis.
✗ C. For Part 1, since the valve manipulations do not include breaking into the system, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that manipulation of valves is considered a Non-Intrusive Activity. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. For Part 1, since the valve manipulations do not include breaking into the system, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that manipulation of valves is considered a Non-Intrusive Activity. For Part 2, Engineering has responsibilities per MA-AA-716-004 and Engineering performs Unreviewed Safety Questions screenings. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that Engineering would do a USQ screening as part of the troubleshooting plan and the USQ screening would include a reactivity analysis.
Ref: MA-AA-716-004 (CONDUCT OF TROUBLESHOOTING) | LO: None | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q42 — MSSV Setpoints and LCO 3.7.1.1 Bases G2.2.25 (3.2)
In accordance with Unit 2 LCO 3.7.1.1 (TURBINE CYCLE SAFETY VALVES), which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The Main Steam Line Code Safety Valves will start to open when main steam line pressure FIRST exceeds _(1)_ psig.

The purpose of LCO 3.7.1.1 is to limit the secondary system pressure to within 110% of its design pressure _(2)_.
A. (1) 1100 (2) ONLY
B. (1) 1100 (2) and to protect against overpressurization of the Reactor Coolant Pressure boundary
C. (1) 1070 (2) ONLY
D. (1) 1070 (2) and to protect against overpressurization of the Reactor Coolant Pressure boundary
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW LCO 3.7.1.1, the Main Steam Line Code Safety Valves will start to open when main steam line pressure FIRST exceeds 1070 psig. For Part 2 and IAW LCO 3.7.1.1, The purpose of LCO 3.7.1.1 is to limit the secondary system pressure to within 110% of its design pressure and to protect against overpressurization of the Reactor Coolant Pressure boundary.
✗ A. For Part 1, MSSVs have 5 different setpoints and 1100 psig is the second lowest setpoint for 21-24MS14s. For Part 2, the candidate could not recognize that the MSSVs also protect against overpressurization of the Reactor Coolant Pressure boundary.
✗ B. For Part 1, MSSVs have 5 different setpoints and 1100 psig is the second lowest setpoint for 21-24MS14s. Part 2 is correct.
✗ C. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could not recognize that the MSSVs also protect against overpressurization of the Reactor Coolant Pressure boundary.
Ref: Technical Specifications (LCO 3.7.1.1) | LO: NOS05MSTEAM-12 (MAIN STEAM SYSTEM) | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q43 — CVCS Monitor Tank Release G2.3.11 (3.2)
Given:
At time 11:45
• 21 CVCS MT is being released in accordance with S2.OP-SO.WL-0001 (RELEASE OF RADIOACTIVE LIQUID WASTE FROM 21 CVCS MONITOR TANK)

At time 12:00
• 2FR1064 (RADWASTE OVERBOARD DISCH FLOW RECORDER) becomes inoperable

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The release will be via _(1)_.

At 12:00, the crew _(2)_ REQUIRED to stop the release of 21 CVCS MT.
A. (1) SW ONLY (2) is
B. (1) SW ONLY (2) is NOT
C. (1) SW to CW (2) is
D. (1) SW to CW (2) is NOT
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW S2.OP-SO.WL-0002, during the release, 21 CVCS MT is being released via SW to CW. For Part 2 and IAW S2.OP-SO.WL-0001 Step 5.5.8, the crew is required to stop the release when 2FR1064 (RADWASTE OVERBOARD DISCH FLOW RECORDER) becomes inoperable.
✗ A. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the release will be via SW ONLY. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the release will be via SW ONLY. For Part 2, the candidate could fail to recognize that 2FR1064 (RADWASTE OVERBOARD DISCH FLOW RECORDER) is required for the liquid waste release. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that at 1200, the crew is NOT required to stop the release.
✗ D. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could fail to recognize that 2FR1064 (RADWASTE OVERBOARD DISCH FLOW RECORDER) is required for the liquid waste release. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that at 1200, the crew is NOT required to stop the release.
Ref: S2.OP-SO.WL-0001 (RELEASE OF RADIOACTIVE LIQUID WASTE FROM 21 CVCS MONITOR TANK) | LO: NOS05WASLIQ-09 (RADIOACTIVE LIQUID WASTE SYSTEM) | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q44 — High Radiation Area RWP Requirements G2.3.7 (3.6)
Given:
• An NEO has signed onto the appropriate RWP to perform work inside a HIGH Radiation Area

In accordance with RP-AA-4000 (Personnel Conduct in Radiologically Controlled Areas), which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

In order to ensure the dose limits of the RWP are not exceeded, RP-AA-4000 states that self reading dosimeters should be read approximately every _(1)_ minutes while working in a HIGH Radiation Area.

If an unexpected self-reading dosimeter comes into alarm, the NEO is REQUIRED to _(2)_ and notify RP personnel.
A. (1) 30 (2) go to a low dose area within the HRA
B. (1) 30 (2) exit the HRA immediately
C. (1) 15 (2) go to a low dose area within the HRA
D. (1) 15 (2) exit the HRA immediately
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. For Part 1, RP-AA-4000 states that self-reading dosimeters should be read approximately every 15 minutes while working in a High Radiation Area. For Part 2, If an unexpected self-reading dosimeter comes into alarm, the NEO is REQUIRED to exit the area and notify RP personnel.
✗ A. For Part 1, RP-AA-4000 states that self-reading dosimeters should be read approximately every 30 minutes while working in a Radiation Area. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that self-reading dosimeters should always be read every 30 minutes. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that exiting the RA is not required until RP has verified the alarm is valid. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that going to a low dose area and notifying RP is the required response IAW RP-AA-4000.
✗ B. For Part 1, RP-AA-4000 states that self-reading dosimeters should be read approximately every 30 minutes while working in a Radiation Area. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that self-reading dosimeters should always be read every 30 minutes. Part 2 is correct.
✗ C. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that exiting the RA is not required until RP has verified the alarm is valid. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that going to a low dose area and notifying RP is the required response IAW RP-AA-4000.
Ref: NOS05RADCON-05 (RADIATION PROTECTION PROGRAM) | LO: NOS05RADCON-05 | Source: Bank (ILOT 1601 NRC RO Q44) | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q45 — Emergency Dose Limits G2.3.4 (3.9)
Given:
• John Doe has received 1000 mrem routine cumulative TEDE this year
• A SITE AREA EMERGENCY has just been declared
• John Doe is preparing to go into an area to mitigate the casualty
    o The area has a general dose rate of 1000 mrem / hour

In accordance with RP-AA-203 (Exposure Control and Authorization) and NC.EP-EP.ZZ-0304 (OPERATIONAL SUPPORT CENTER (OSC) RADIATION PROTECTION RESPONSE), which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

John Doe can work in the area for a MAXIMUM of ___ minutes without exceeding his ADMINISTRATIVE dose limits for the year.
A. 60
B. 180
C. 210
D. 240
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. IAW RP-AA-203, the Administrative Dose Limit for routine work is 2000 mrem TEDE. When the Site Area Emergency is declared, then IAW NC.EP-EP.ZZ-0304, the administrative dose limit is automatically raised to 4500 mrem. Consequently, the worker can work (4500 - 1000) / 1000 = 3.5 hours or 210 minutes in the area.
✗ A. 60 Minutes would be the stay time if the candidate used the normal administrative limit of 2000 mrem.
✗ B. 180 Minutes would be the stay time if the candidate incorrectly concluded that the administrative dose limit is automatically raised to 4000 mrem.
✗ D. 240 Minutes would be the stay time if the candidate incorrectly concluded that the administrative dose limit is automatically raised to 5000 mrem.
Ref: RP-AA-203, NC.EP-EP.ZZ-0304 | LO: NOS05RADCON-05 (RADIATION PROTECTION PROGRAM) | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q46 — CSF Priority Implementation G2.4.22 (3.6)
Given:
• The crew is monitoring the Critical Safety Functions
• The following parameters are observed:
    o Containment Pressure is 5.8 psig
    o Power Range NI is 2.1% with an IR SUR of (+) 0.1 DPM
    o RCS Subcooling is (-) 15 °F
    o ALL RCPs are stopped
    o 8 CETs are reading 750 °F
    o RVLIS Full Range is 41%
    o 21 SG NR Level is 10%, 22 SG NR Level is 7%, 23 SG NR Level is 8% and 24 SG NR Level is 9%
    o Total AFW flow to SGs is 0 LB/HR
    o BOTH Containment Spray Pumps are stopped
    o Containment Sump is 63%
    o R-44 Radiation is reading 5 R/HR

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

Based on the Functional Restoration Implementation Priority, the crew is required to FIRST address the challenge to ___
A. Containment Environment
B. Shutdown Margin
C. Core Cooling
D. Heat Sink
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. IAW OP-AA-101-111-1003, CSF Hierarchy (high to low) is SHUTDOWN MARGIN, CORE COOLING, HEAT SINK, THERMAL SHOCK, CONTAINMENT ENVIRONMENT and COOLANT INVENTORY. Additionally, CFST Color Hierarchy (high to low) is Red, Purple, Yellow, and Green. Based on the plant conditions and IAW 2-EOP-CFST-1, the status trees are: Shutdown Margin (Purple), Core Cooling (Purple), Heat Sink (Red) and Containment Environment (Green). Consequently, the crew is required to FIRST address the challenge to Heat Sink.
✗ A. The candidate could incorrectly analyze plant conditions and incorrectly determine Containment Environment must first be addressed.
✗ B. The candidate could incorrectly analyze plant conditions and incorrectly determine Shutdown Margin must first be addressed.
✗ C. The candidate could incorrectly analyze plant conditions and incorrectly determine Core Cooling must first be addressed.
Ref: NOS05PROCED-08 (USE AND CONTROL OF PROCEDURES), 2-EOP-CFST-1 (CRITICAL SAFETY FUNCTION STATUS TREES) | LO: NOS05PROCED-08 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q47 — Accident Monitoring Instrumentation G2.4.3 (3.7)
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

In accordance with Unit 2 LCO 3.3.3.7 (ACCIDENT MONITORING INSTRUMENTATION), 2PT-403 (RCS Pressure) and 2PT-405 (RCS Pressure) _(1)_ credited as accident monitoring instrumentation.

2PT-403 and 2PT-405 provide input to the Pressurizer Overpressure Protection System (POPS) _(2)_.
A. (1) are (2) ONLY
B. (1) are (2) and to the RVLIS Electronics Cabinets
C. (1) are NOT (2) ONLY
D. (1) are NOT (2) and to the RVLIS Electronics Cabinets
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW LCO 3.3.3.7 (ACCIDENT MONITORING INSTRUMENTATION), 2PT-403 (RCS Narrow Range Pressure) and 2PT-405 (RCS Wide Range Pressure) are credited as accident monitoring instrumentation. For Part 2, 2PT-403 and 2PT-405 provide input to the Pressurizer Overpressure Protection System (POPS) and to the RVLIS Electronics Cabinets.
✗ A. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 2PT-403 and 2PT-405 provide input to the Pressurizer Overpressure Protection System (POPS) ONLY.
✗ C. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that In accordance with Unit 2 LCO 3.3.3.7 (ACCIDENT MONITORING INSTRUMENTATION), 2PT-403 (RCS Pressure) and 2PT-405 (RCS Pressure) are not credited as accident monitoring instrumentation. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 2PT-403 and 2PT-405 provide input to the Pressurizer Overpressure Protection System (POPS) ONLY.
✗ D. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that In accordance with Unit 2 LCO 3.3.3.7 (ACCIDENT MONITORING INSTRUMENTATION), 2PT-403 (RCS Pressure) and 2PT-405 (RCS Pressure) are not credited as accident monitoring instrumentation. Part 2 is correct.
Ref: Technical Specifications (LCO 3.3.3.7) | LO: NOS05TECHSPEC-12 (TECHNICAL SPECIFICATIONS) | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q48 — Control Room Evacuation G2.4.11 (4.0)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power and stable

At time 02:00:00
• The crew enters S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 (Control Room Evacuation)
• The Reactor Trip has been confirmed
• The Turbine has been successfully tripped

In accordance with S2.OP-AB.CR-0001, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 (Control Room Evacuation) is implemented when the Control Room is evacuated as the result of a(n) _(1)_.

If Control Room conditions permit, the crew _(2)_ INITIATE a Main Steam Isolation prior to evacuating the Control Room.
A. (1) security event (2) will
B. (1) security event (2) will NOT
C. (1) uncontrolled fire in the Control Room (2) will
D. (1) uncontrolled fire in the Control Room (2) will NOT
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. For Part 1, S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 (Control Room Evacuation) is implemented when the Control Room is evacuated as the result of a security event. For Part 2 and IAW S2.OP-AB.CR-0001, the crew will initiate a Main Steam Isolation as part of the immediate actions.
✗ B. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, EOP-TRIP-1 only requires initiating a Main Steam Line Isolation if the turbine can not be tripped. Since the Turbine was successfully tripped, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that initiating a Main Steam isolation is not required per S2.OP-AB.CR-0001.
✗ C. For Part 1, there is another Abnormal Procedure that deals with a control room evacuation due to a fire. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 (Control Room Evacuation) is implemented when the Control Room is evacuated as the result of an uncontrolled fire in the control room. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. For Part 1, there is another Abnormal Procedure that deals with a control room evacuation due to a fire. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 (Control Room Evacuation) is implemented when the Control Room is evacuated as the result of an uncontrolled fire in the control room. For Part 2, EOP-TRIP-1 only requires initiating a Main Steam Line Isolation if the turbine can not be tripped. Since the Turbine was successfully tripped, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that initiating a Main Steam isolation is not required per S2.OP-AB.CR-0001.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 | LO: NOS05ABCR01-05 (Control Room Evacuation) | Source: Modified Bank (ILOT 1601 AUDIT RO 069) | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q49 — EOP-TRIP-1 Immediate Actions [OUTDATED] EPE: 007 EK2.02 (2.6)
Given:
• Unit 1 is at 100% Reactor Power and stable

At time 10:00:00
• A valid AUTOMATIC reactor trip signal is generated by RPS but the Reactor Trip Breakers do NOT open

At time 10:00:03
• The Immediate Actions of 1-EOP-TRIP-1 (Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection) have been initiated

In accordance with 1-EOP-TRIP-1, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

At 10:00:03, the RO will attempt to manually trip the Reactor by FIRST actuating the _(1)_.

If the Reactor can NOT be tripped using the Trip Breaker BEZELS or the Reactor Trip Switches, the crew's NEXT action will be to _(2)_.
A. (1) Trip Breaker BEZELS (2) initiate Rod Insertion
B. (1) Trip Breaker BEZELS (2) open Breakers 1E 6D and 1G 6D
C. (1) Reactor Trip Switches (Pistol Grips) (2) initiate Rod Insertion
D. (1) Reactor Trip Switches (Pistol Grips) (2) open Breakers 1E 6D and 1G 6D
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. 1-EOP-TRIP-1 IMMEDIATE ACTIONS are expected to be performed from memory and in order. For Part 1 and IAW 1-EOP-TRIP-1 Step 1, the RO will attempt to trip the Reactor manually by FIRST actuating the Reactor Trip Switches. For Part 2 and IAW 1-EOP-TRIP-1 Step 1, if the Reactor can NOT be tripped using the Trip Breaker BEZELS or the Reactor Trip Switches, the crew's NEXT action will be to open Breakers 1E 6D and 1G 6D.
✗ A. For Part 1 and IAW EOP-TRIP-1, actuating the Reactor Trip BEZELS is the second option to trip the reactor manually. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that using the BEZELS is the actual first required immediate action. For Part 2, initiating Rod Insertion is part of the Immediate Actions of EOP-TRIP-1 (Step 2.2). Consequently, given the plant conditions, the candidate could incorrectly conclude the crew's NEXT action is to initiate Rod insertion.
✗ B. For Part 1 and IAW EOP-TRIP-1, actuating the Reactor Trip BEZELS is the second option to trip the reactor manually. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that using the BEZELS is the actual first required immediate action. Part 2 is correct.
✗ C. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, initiating Rod Insertion is part of the Immediate Actions of EOP-TRIP-1 (Step 2.2). Consequently, given the plant conditions, the candidate could incorrectly conclude the crew's NEXT action is to initiate Rod insertion.
Ref: 1-EOP-TRIP-1 (Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection) | LO: NOS05TRP001-08 (REACTOR TRIP OR SAFETY INJECTION) | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q50 — PZR Safety Valve Leak and Charging Response APE: 008 AK2.03 (2.5)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power
• 23 Charging Pump is in service
• Charging Flow is 88 GPM

At time 11:25:00
• Pressurizer pressure starts to lower due to 2PR3 (PZR SAFETY VLV) seat leakage

At time 11:27:00 (2 Minutes Later)
• Pressurizer pressure is 2100 psig and lowering

At time 11:29:00 (4 Minutes Later)
• Pressurizer pressure is 1910 psig and lowering
• An AUTOMATIC Reactor Trip occurs

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

At 11:27, Charging Flow is _(1)_ 88 GPM.
At 11:29, the FIRST-OUT alarm indicates that the Reactor tripped on _(2)_.
A. (1) greater than (2) OTΔT
B. (1) greater than (2) OPΔT
C. (1) less than (2) OTΔT
D. (1) less than (2) OPΔT
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. For Part 1, with seat leakage of the PZR Safety Valve, actual PZR level will lower below program level. Consequently, the master flow controller will automatically raise charging flow in an effort to raise PZR level. Consequently, at 11:27, Charging Flow is greater than 88 GPM (the original charging flow prior to the malfunction). For Part 2, the OTΔT Reactor Trip setpoint is variable and will be automatically lowered as RCS pressure lowers. Consequently, at 11:29, the FIRST-OUT alarm indicates that the Reactor tripped on OTΔT.
✗ B. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, OPΔT is also a variable Reactor Trip setpoint that changes as AFD changes. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the OPΔT Reactor Trip setpoint changes as RCS pressure changes. This would then cause the candidate to incorrectly conclude that at 11:29, the FIRST-OUT alarm indicates that the Reactor tripped on OPΔT.
✗ C. For Part 1, since the PZR Safety Valves are located on top of the PZR, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that PZR level actually rises due to the PZR Safety Valve seat leakage. When PZR level rises above program level, the master flow controller will actually lower charging flow below 88 GPM (the original charging flow prior to the malfunction). Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. For Part 1, since the PZR Safety Valves are located on top of the PZR, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that PZR level actually rises due to the PZR Safety Valve seat leakage. When PZR level rises above program level, the master flow controller will actually lower charging flow below 88 GPM (the original charging flow prior to the malfunction). For Part 2, OPΔT is also a variable Reactor Trip setpoint that changes as AFD changes. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the OPΔT Reactor Trip setpoint changes as RCS pressure changes. This would then cause the candidate to incorrectly conclude that at 11:29, the FIRST-OUT alarm indicates that the Reactor tripped on OPΔT.
Ref: NOS05FLUNCY-09 (LICENSED OPERATOR FLUENCY LIST), NOS05CVCS00-16 (CHEMICAL AND VOLUME CONTROL SYSTEM) | LO: NOS05CVCS00-16 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q51 — LOCA-1 Feed Flow and SG Level Requirements EPE: 009 Small Break LOCA-EK2.03 (3.0)
Given:
• A Reactor Trip and Safety Injection has occurred due to a Small Break LOCA on Unit 1
• The crew is controlling SG Levels in accordance with 1-EOP-LOCA-1 (Loss Of Reactor Coolant) Step 3.
• Containment Pressure is 2.5 psig and slowly rising

In accordance with 1-EOP-LOCA-1, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The crew is REQUIRED to maintain Total Feed Flow greater than 22E04 LB/HR until ___
A. ALL SG NR Levels are greater than a MINIMUM of 9%
B. ALL SG NR Levels are greater than a MINIMUM of 15%
C. AT LEAST ONE SG NR Level is greater than a MINIMUM of 9%
D. AT LEAST ONE SG NR Level is greater than a MINIMUM of 15%
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. Per 1-EOP-LOCA-1 Step 3, "MAINTAIN TOTAL FEED FLOW GREATER THAN 22E04 LB/HR LEVEL UNTIL AT LEAST ONE SG NR IS GREATER THAN 9% (15% ADVERSE)". Based on containment pressure, containment is NOT considered adverse. Consequently, the crew is REQUIRED to maintain Total Feed Flow greater than 22E04 LB/HR until AT LEAST ONE SG NR Level is greater than a MINIMUM of 9%.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate correctly determine containment as NOT adverse but then incorrectly conclude 1-EOP-LOCA-1 Step 3 requires Total Feed Flow greater than 22E04 LB/HR until ALL SG NR Levels are greater than the non-adverse limit of 9%.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate incorrectly determine containment as adverse and also incorrectly conclude 1-EOP-LOCA-1 Step 3 requires Total Feed Flow greater than 22E04 LB/HR until ALL SG NR Levels are greater than the MINIMUM adverse limit of 15%.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate incorrectly determine containment as adverse but then correctly recall that 1-EOP-LOCA-1 Step 3 requires Total Feed Flow greater than 22E04 LB/HR until AT LEAST ONE SG NR Level is greater than the MINIMUM adverse limit of 15%.
Ref: 1-EOP-LOCA-1 | LO: NOS05LOCA01-05 (LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT AND LOSS OF COOLANT ACCIDENT ANALYSIS) | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q52 — LOCA-3 SEC Reset and Blackout Loading EPE: 011 Large Break LOCA-EK2.02 (2.6)
Given:
• A LBLOCA is in progress at Unit 2

At time 10:00
• The crew has just reset SI and ALL SECs in accordance with 2-EOP-LOCA-3 (Transfer To Cold Leg Recirculation)

At time 10:05
• 2A 4KV Vital Bus de-energizes due to a SPURIOUS isolation from off-site power

In accordance with 2-EOP-LOCA-3, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

At 10:00 and after resetting ALL of the SECs, the crew _(1)_ REQUIRED to ensure that the 230V control centers are reset.
After the 2A EDG loading is completed, the ECCS pumps on 2A 4KV Vital Bus _(2)_.

(1)(2)
A. (1) is (2) will start AUTOMATICALLY
B. (1) is (2) must be MANUALLY started
C. (1) is NOT (2) must be MANUALLY started
D. (1) is NOT (2) will start AUTOMATICALLY
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. For Part 1, at 10:00 and after resetting ALL of the SECs, the crew is required to MANUALLY reset the 230V control centers (even though at 20 minutes after SEC actuation, this lockout is automatically removed). For Part 2, if a blackout loading sequence occurs on any 4KV vital bus with SI previously reset, then ECCS pumps and other safeguards equipment will not automatically start and must be manually operated if required since different equipment is started on a SEC blackout loading than on a safeguards loading.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that after the blackout loading is completed, the ECCS pumps and safeguards equipment on 2A 4KV Vital Bus will start AUTOMATICALLY (since a LBLOCA is in progress).
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate may fail to recognize that after resetting ALL of the SECs, the crew is required to MANUALLY reset the 230V control centers. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate may fail to recognize that after resetting ALL of the SECs, the crew is required to MANUALLY reset the 230V control centers. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that after the blackout loading is completed, the ECCS pumps and safeguards equipment on 2A 4KV Vital Bus will start AUTOMATICALLY (since a LBLOCA is in progress).
Ref: 2-EOP-LOCA-3 (Transfer To Cold Leg Recirculation) | LO: NOS05LCA3U2-04 (TRANSFER TO COLD LEG RECIRCULATION) | Source: Bank — ILOT 1601 AUDIT RO 051 | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q53 — RCP Shaft Shear Delta-T and SG Shrink APE: 015/017 RCP Malfunctions-AK1.04 (2.9)
Given:
• Unit 1 is at 25% Reactor Power and rising due to a plant startup

At time 17:00:00
• 13 RCP shaft shears

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

13 RCS Loop ΔT will _(1)_ and 13 SG NR Level will INITIALLY _(2)_.

(1)(2)
A. (1) lower (2) shrink
B. (1) lower (2) swell
C. (1) rise (2) shrink
D. (1) rise (2) swell
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. When 13 RCP shaft shears, Loop 13 RCS flow will go to minimum and 13 SG steam flow will lower significantly. This will cause 13 RCS Loop ΔT to lower and 13 SG NR level will initially shrink.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could not understand the shrink/swell concept and incorrectly conclude that 13 SG will initially swell.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could misunderstand the thermodynamic processes in play with unbalanced flow in an RCS loop and incorrectly determine that 13 RCS Loop ΔT will rise. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could misunderstand the thermodynamic processes in play with unbalanced flow in an RCS loop and incorrectly determine that 13 RCS Loop ΔT will rise. For Part 2, the candidate could not understand the shrink/swell concept and incorrectly conclude that 13 SG will initially swell.
Ref: NOS05RCPUMP-13, NOS05STMGEN-14 | LO: NOS05RCPUMP-13 (REACTOR COOLANT PUMP), NOS05STMGEN-14 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q54 — VCT LT-112 Failure and Loss of RCS Makeup APE: 022 Loss of Reactor Coolant Makeup-AA1.08 (3.4)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power and stable

At time 09:00
• 2LT-112 (VCT Level Transmitter) fails to 50%

At time 09:10
• An RCS leak of 15 gpm is observed

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

ACTUAL VCT level will lower ___
A. and CYCLE between 14% and 24% due to the operation of the AUTOMATIC RCS Make up controls
B. and CYCLE between 11% and 24% due to the operation of the AUTOMATIC RCS Make up controls
C. and STABILIZE at approximately 3.57% as the Charging Pump suction AUTOMATICALLY swaps to the RWST
D. to BELOW 3.57% with the running Charging Pump eventually losing suction
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. With 2LT-112 failed at 50% and an observed 15 gpm RCS leak, the running charging pump will eventually lose suction as actual VCT lowers below 3.57%. There are two level transmitters on the VCT (LT-112 and LT-114). LT-112 controls the automatic make-up controls (starts at 14% and stops at 24%). With LT-112 failed at 50%, no automatic RCS Make-up is possible. Additionally, the Charging Pump suction AUTOMATICALLY swaps to the RWST only when BOTH LT-112 and LT-114 read 3.57%.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. This would be the correct answer if 2LT-114 had failed to 50% with an observed 15 gpm RCS leak.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. This would be the correct answer if 2LT-114 had failed to 50% with an observed 15 gpm RCS leak and the candidate had incorrectly concluded that the AUTOMATIC Make-up started at 11% VCT Level (the VCT low level alarm setpoint).
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. This would be the correct answer if the candidate incorrectly concluded that the Charging Pump suction AUTOMATICALLY swaps to the RWST when 2LT-112 OR 2LT-114 read 3.57%.
Ref: NOS05CVCS00-17 (CHEMICAL AND VOLUME CONTROL SYSTEM) | LO: NOS05CVCS00-17 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q55 — CC131 Thermal Barrier Flow and RCP Trip Criteria APE: 026 Loss of CCW-AA1.07 (2.9)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power

At time 15:00
• 2CC131 Console Alarm, "Discharge Flow Hi", actuates

At time 15:01
• The crew has completed the Alarm Response Procedure for the 2CC131 Console Alarm and has transitioned to S2.OP-AB.RCP-0001 (Reactor Coolant Pump Abnormality)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

2CC131 (RCP THERMAL BARRIER VALVE) AUTOMATICALLY closed when CC flow from the RCP Thermal Barrier reached a MINIMUM of _(1)_ gpm.
In accordance with S2.OP-AB.RCP-0001 CAS, the crew _(2)_ required to secure ALL RCPs within 2 minutes.

(1)(2)
A. (1) 145 (2) is NOT
B. (1) 145 (2) is
C. (1) 175 (2) is NOT
D. (1) 175 (2) is
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. For Part 1, 2CC131 (RCP THERMAL BARRIER VALVE) AUTOMATICALLY closed when CC flow from the RCP Thermal Barrier reached a MINIMUM of 175 gpm. For Part 2 and IAW S2.OP-AB.RCP-0001 CAS, with only Thermal Barrier Component Cooling flows lost (RCP Injection Flow is normal), the crew is NOT required to secure ALL RCPs within 2 minutes.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 145 gpm is lo flow alarm setpoint of CC131. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that CC131 will automatically close when flow reaches a minimum of 145 gpm. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 145 gpm is lo flow alarm setpoint of CC131. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that CC131 will automatically close when flow reaches a minimum of 145 gpm. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly determine that RCP seal cooling has been lost and determine that in accordance with S2.OP-AB.RCP-0001 CAS, the crew is required to secure ALL RCPs within 2 minutes.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly determine that RCP seal cooling has been lost and determine that in accordance with S2.OP-AB.RCP-0001 CAS, the crew is required to secure ALL RCPs within 2 minutes.
Ref: S2.OP-AR.ZZ-0011 Bezel 2CC131 ARP, S2.OP-AB.RCP-0001 | LO: NOS05CCW000-12 (COMPONENT COOLING WATER) | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q56 — FRSM-1 Local Reactor Trip Breakers [EDITED] 029 ATWS-G2.4.35 (3.8)
Given:
• The crew is preparing to trip the reactor locally in accordance with 2-EOP-FRSM-1 (RESPONSE TO NUCLEAR POWER GENERATION) Step 6

Considering ONLY the following breakers:
1. Reactor Trip Breakers
2. Rod Drive MG Set Motor Breakers
3. Rod Drive MG Set Generator Breakers

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

When directed from the Control Room to locally TRIP the Reactor, the NEO will open ___
A. 1 ONLY
B. 1 and 2 ONLY
C. 2 and 3 ONLY
D. 1, 2 and 3
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. IAW 2-EOP-FRSM-1 Step 6, the crew will direct the NEOs to open the Reactor Trip Breakers, the Rod Drive MG Set Motor Breakers and the Rod Drive MG Set Generator Breakers.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Since opening any one set of breakers (1, 2 or 3) will trip the reactor, any combination of 1, 2 or 3 is plausible.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Since opening any one set of breakers (1, 2 or 3) will trip the reactor, any combination of 1, 2 or 3 is plausible.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. Since opening any one set of breakers (1, 2 or 3) will trip the reactor, any combination of 1, 2 or 3 is plausible.
Ref: 2-EOP-FRSM-1 | LO: NOS05FRSM00-04 (EOP-FRSM-1 AND 2 RESPONSE TO NUCLEAR POWER GENERATION) | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q57 — SGFP Trip Below P-10 and AFW Pump Start APE: 054 Loss of MFW-AA2.03 (4.1)
Given:
• Unit 1 is at 8% Reactor Power
• 11 SGFP is in service
• 11 CN Pump and 12 CN Pump are in service

At time 18:00
• 11 SGFP Trips
• ALL SG NR levels are 33% and lowering
• The crew enters S1.OP-AB.CN-0001 (MAIN FEEDWATER/CONDENSATE SYSTEM ABNORMALITY)

In accordance with S1.OP-AB.CN-0001, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The crew will ___
A. TRIP the Reactor AND GO TO 1-EOP-TRIP-1 (Reactor Trip or Safety Injection)
B. REDUCE Reactor Power to less than 4%, then START 11 and 12 AFW Pumps
C. REDUCE Reactor Power to less than 4%, then START 12 SGFP
D. IMMEDIATELY start 12 SGFP
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. Since Reactor Power is less than P-10 (10% Power), then IAW S1.OP-AB.CN-0001 Steps 3.2, 3.3, 3.14, 3.15, 3.16 and 3.17, the crew will REDUCE Reactor Power to less than 4%, then START 11 and 12 AFW Pump.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. There are multiple criteria in the S1.OP-AB.CN-0001 CAS that required a reactor trip. Consequently, the candidate could misapply the plant conditions to the CAS and incorrectly conclude that a Reactor Trip is required.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. Since 12 SGFP is available and has a greater feed capacity than the AFW system, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the 12 SGFP should be started once Reactor power is lowered below 4%.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Since 12 SGFP is available and has a greater feed capacity than the AFW system and SG levels are lowering, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the 12 SGFP should be started immediately.
Ref: S1.OP-AB.CN-0001 | LO: NOS05ABCN01-06 (MAIN FEEDWATER/CONDENSATE SYSTEM ABNORMALITY) | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q58 — Loss of Offsite Power TS 3.8.1.1 Actions APE: 056 Loss of Offsite Power-G2.2.39 (3.9)
Given:
• Unit 2 is in MODE 3 preparing to do a plant startup
• The Electrical Systems Operator has notified Unit 2 that the Orchard 500 KV Line (5021) and the New Freedom 500KV Line (5024) will be unavailable starting at 15:00 for a duration of 6 hours

At time 15:00
• Unit 2 has been isolated from the Orchard 500 KV Line (5021) and the New Freedom 500KV Line (5024)
• The 500 KV Salem-Hope Creek Tie-Line (5037) is still available to Unit 2

Considering ONLY the following actions below:
1. Demonstrate the OPERABILITY of the remaining independent A.C. circuit by performing Surveillance Requirement 4.8.1.1.1.a within 1 hour
2. Demonstrate the OPERABILITY of three diesel generators by performing Surveillance Requirement 4.8.1.1.2.a.2 within 1 hour
3. Immediately suspend all operations involving positive reactivity changes

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

At 15:00 and in accordance with Unit 2 LCO 3.8.1.1 (A.C. Sources - Operating), the crew must perform action(s) ___
A. 1 ONLY
B. 2 ONLY
C. 2 and 3 ONLY
D. 1, 2 and 3
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. Based on the question stem and at 15:00, the crew must perform LCO 3.8.1.1 Required Action A (With an independent A.C. circuit of the above required A.C. electrical power sources inoperable). The only 1 hour or less required action per LCO 3.8.1.1(a.1) is to demonstrate the OPERABILITY of the remaining independent A.C. circuit by performing Surveillance Requirement 4.8.1.1.1.a within 1 hour.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. LCO 3.8.1.1 and LCO 3.8.1.2 (ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS SHUTDOWN) have required actions that are consistent with Actions 2 and 3 contained in the question stem. Action 2 would be required within 8 hours if two of the above required independent A.C. circuits inoperable (LCO 3.8.1.1 (D)). Action 3 would be required if the Unit was in Mode 5 & 6 and with one of the above minimum required A.C. electrical power sources not OPERABLE. Consequently, any distractor containing Action 2 or Action 3 is plausible.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. See B Distractor Analysis.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. See B Distractor Analysis.
Ref: Unit 2 LCO 3.8.1.1 | LO: NOS05500KV-12 (500KV ELECTRICAL SYSTEM) | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q59 — Loss of 2A 125 VDC Bus EDG Impact APE: 058 Loss of DC Power-AA2.03 (3.5)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power

At time 16:00
• OHA B-2, "2A 125 VDC CNTRL BUS VOLT LO" actuates
• 2A Vital 125 VDC Bus voltage is reading 0 VDC on 2RP9

Considering ONLY the following equipment malfunctions below:
1. #1 SGFP Emergency Oil Pump loses power
2. Main Turbine Emergency Oil Pump loses power
3. 2A EDG is NOT available for start

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

With a confirmed 2A Vital 125 VDC Bus voltage of 0 VDC, Unit 2 will experience equipment malfunction(s) ___
A. 2 ONLY
B. 3 ONLY
C. 1 and 2 ONLY
D. 2 and 3 ONLY
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. When OHA B-2, "2A 125 VDC CNTRL BUS VOLT LO" actuates, the only affected malfunction is that 2A EDG is not available for start.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. All of the equipment malfunctions can be caused by a loss of a portion of the DC Power System (250 VDC, 125 VDC or 28 VDC). Consequently, all of the distractors are plausible.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. All of the equipment malfunctions can be caused by a loss of a portion of the DC Power System (250 VDC, 125 VDC or 28 VDC). Consequently, all of the distractors are plausible.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. All of the equipment malfunctions can be caused by a loss of a portion of the DC Power System (250 VDC, 125 VDC or 28 VDC). Consequently, all of the distractors are plausible.
Ref: S2.OP-AR.ZZ-0002, Alarm B-2 | LO: NOS05DCELEC-09 (DC ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS) | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q60 — SW Nuclear Header Leak Location APE: 062 Loss of Nuclear Service Water-A2.02 (2.9)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power with Service Water in its normal summer alignment

At time 16:00
• Service Water pressure to the following Service Water loads are lowering:
  21 CC Pump, 21 CS Pump, 21 CFCU, and other loads on the 21 SW Nuclear Header

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

Assuming there is a leak on the piping CLOSEST to the affected Service Water loads (causing the low Service Water pressure), then the leak is ___
A. downstream of 2SW26 (TURB AREA SW MOV)
B. downstream of 22SW22 (NUCLEAR HEADER)
C. downstream of 21SW22 (NUCLEAR HEADER)
D. between 21SW23 (NUCLEAR HEADER TIE VLV) and 22SW23 (NUCLEAR HEADER TIE VLV)
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. The affected SW loads are all cooled from the 21 SW Nuclear Header. Consequently, the leak is downstream of 21SW22.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Since all of the distractors contain piping associated with the SW system, then all of the distractors are plausible.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Since all of the distractors contain piping associated with the SW system, then all of the distractors are plausible.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Since all of the distractors contain piping associated with the SW system, then all of the distractors are plausible.
Ref: 205342-SIMP | LO: NOS05SWONUC-14 (SERVICE WATER - NUCLEAR HEADER) | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q61 — ECAC Start Criteria and BF19 Control Air APE: 065 Loss of Instrument Air-AK3.04 (3.0)
Given:
• Unit 1 and Unit 2 are BOTH at 100% Reactor Power

At time 20:00
• S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 (LOSS OF CONTROL AIR) and S2.OP-AB.CA-0001 (LOSS OF CONTROL AIR) are entered due to a large Station Air leak

In accordance with S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 and S2.OP-AB.CA-0001, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The crews will MANUALLY start the 1 Emergency Control Air Compressor and 2 Emergency Control Air Compressor when the 1A/1B/2A/2B Control Air Headers lower to a MAXIMUM of _(1)_ psig.

Ensuring proper operation of the BF19s (Main Feedwater Control Valves) _(2)_ a reason for MANUALLY starting the Emergency Air Compressors in S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 and S2.OP-AB.CA-0001.
A. (1) 100    (2) is NOT
B. (1) 100    (2) is
C. (1) 88    (2) is NOT
D. (1) 88    (2) is
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 and S2.OP-AB.CA-0001, the crews will MANUALLY start the 1 Emergency Control Air Compressor and 2 Emergency Control Air Compressor when the 1A/1B/2A/2B Control Air Headers lower to a MINIMUM of 88 psig. For Part 2 and IAW S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 and S2.OP-AB.CA-0001, ensuring proper operation of the BF19s (Main Feedwater Control Valves) is NOT a reason for MANUALLY starting the Emergency Air Compressors in S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 and S2.OP-AB.CA-0001.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 100 psig is CA pressure at which the remaining Station Air Compressor is started IAW S1/S2.OP-AB.CA-0001. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the crews will MANUALLY start the 1 Emergency Control Air Compressor and 2 Emergency Control Air Compressor when the 1A/1B/2A/2B Control Air Headers lower to a MINIMUM of 100 psig. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 100 psig is CA pressure at which the remaining Station Air Compressor is started IAW S1/S2.OP-AB.CA-0001. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the crews will MANUALLY start the 1 Emergency Control Air Compressor and 2 Emergency Control Air Compressor when the 1A/1B/2A/2B Control Air Headers lower to a MINIMUM of 100 psig. For Part 2, proper operation of AOVs is a reason to start the ECACs. However, check valves in the CA system prevent the ECACs from supplying the BF19s. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the reason for MANUALLY starting the Emergency Air Compressors is to ensure proper operation of the BF19s.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, proper operation of AOVs is a reason to start the ECACs. However, check valves in the CA system prevent the ECACs from supplying the BF19s. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the reason for MANUALLY starting the Emergency Air Compressors is to ensure proper operation of the BF19s.
Ref: S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 (LOSS OF CONTROL AIR) and S2.OP-AB.CA-0001 (LOSS OF CONTROL AIR) | LO: NOS05ABCA01-07 | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q62 — 500 KV Line Operability During Abnormal Grid 077 Generator Voltage and Electric Grid Disturbances-G2.2.37 (3.6)
Given:
• Unit 2 is MODE 3
• The crew is performing S2.OP-AB.GRID-0001 (ABNORMAL GRID)
• The voltages on the 500 KV Lines are as follows:

Orchard (5021)New Freedom (5024)Salem-Hope Creek Tie (5037)
492 KV494 KV497 KV

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

In accordance with S2.OP-AB.GRID-0001 CAS ___
A. ONLY the Orchard and New Freedom 500 KV Lines are inoperable
B. ONLY the Orchard 500 KV Line is inoperable
C. ALL of the 500 KV Lines are inoperable
D. ALL of the 500 KV Lines are OPERABLE
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. IAW S2.OP-AB.GRID-0001 CAS, "IF AT ANY TIME one of the following conditions for the 500KV Switchyard exists OR is predicted to occur by PJM/ESOC upon the loss of either Salem Unit 1 OR Unit 2 Main Generator: Salem 500KV Switchyard voltage is less than 493KV, or Salem 500KV Switchyard voltage drops by greater than 2%. THEN DECLARE the associated A.C. Circuit (Off-Site Power Source) inoperable." Based on the given plant conditions, ONLY the Orchard 500 KV Line (492 KV) is NOT OPERABLE.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could misinterpret the 500 KV Voltages with the standard and incorrectly determine that ONLY the Orchard and New Freedom 500 KV Lines are inoperable.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could misinterpret the 500 KV Voltages with the standard and incorrectly determine that ALL 500 KV Lines are inoperable.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could misinterpret the 500 KV Voltages with the standard and incorrectly determine that ALL 500 KV Lines are OPERABLE.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.GRID-0001 | LO: NOS05ABGRID-12 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q63 — LOCA-6 RHR Piping Concern and Leak Isolation WE04 LOCA Outside Containment (3.6)
Given:
• The crew has just transitioned to 1-EOP-LOCA-6 (LOCA Outside Containment)

In accordance with 1-EOP-LOCA-6, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

As part of the leak isolation strategy, the crew is MOST concerned with the piping connecting the _(1)_ System to the RCS.

The crew will monitor rising _(2)_ to determine when the leak has been successfully isolated.
A. (1) RHR    (2) RCS pressure
B. (1) RHR    (2) Pressurizer level
C. (1) SI    (2) RCS pressure
D. (1) SI    (2) Pressurizer level
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW 1-EOP-LOCA-6, as part of the leak isolation strategy, the crew is MOST concerned with the piping connecting the RHR System to the RCS, since this piping is only rated to 600 psig (compared to the RCS Piping being rated to 2500 psig). For Part 2 and IAW 1-EOP-LOCA-6, the crew will monitor rising RCS Pressure to determine when the leak has been successfully isolated.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, since ECCS flow is injecting water into the core during performance of 1-EOP-LOCA-6, RCS inventory will increase once the leak has been isolated. An increase in RCS inventory can be measured by rising PZR level. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 1-EOP-LOCA-6 monitors rising PZR level as a determination that the leak has been successfully isolated.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, since the SI Piping / pumps are also outside of containment and connected to the RCS, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that LOCA-6 is most concerned with the piping connecting the SI system to the RCS. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, since the SI Piping / pumps are also outside of containment and connected to the RCS, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that LOCA-6 is most concerned with the piping connecting the SI system to the RCS. For Part 2, since ECCS flow is injecting water into the core during performance of 1-EOP-LOCA-6, RCS inventory will increase once the leak has been isolated. An increase in RCS inventory can be measured by rising PZR level. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 1-EOP-LOCA-6 monitors rising PZR level as a determination that the leak has been successfully isolated.
Ref: 1-EOP-LOCA-6 (LOCA OUTSIDE CONTAINMENT) | LO: NOS05LOCA06-03 | Source: Modified Bank - ILOT 1601 NRC RO 63 | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q64 — FRHS-1 Bleed and Feed ECCS Pump Requirement WE05 Loss of Secondary Heat Sink-EK1.3 (3.9)
Given:
• The crew is performing the Bleed and Feed Initiation Steps of 1-EOP-FRHS-1 (Response To Loss Of Secondary Heat Sink)
• 11 Charging Pump and 12 Charging Pump are the ONLY ECCS pumps running

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The crew _(1)_ proceed in 1-EOP-FRHS-1 and establish the required RCS Bleed Path.

If the crew can proceed in 1-EOP-FRHS-1 to establish an RCS Bleed path, then the crew will open _(2)_.
A. (1) can    (2) BOTH PORVs ONLY
B. (1) can    (2) BOTH PORVs AND all Reactor Head Vents simultaneously
C. (1) can NOT    (2) BOTH PORVs ONLY
D. (1) can NOT    (2) BOTH PORVs AND all Reactor Head Vents simultaneously
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW 1-EOP-FRHS-1 Step 23, as long as 1 Charging Pump and 1 SI Pump are running, the crew will continue attempts to start the other Charging Pump and the SI Pump while establishing an RCS Bleed Path. Given the current plant conditions (only charging pumps running, no SI pump), the crew can NOT proceed in 1-EOP-FRHS-1 and establish the required RCS Bleed Path. For Part 2 and IAW 1-EOP-FRHS-1 Step 24, opening BOTH PORVs ONLY is an allowable Bleed Path in accordance with 1-EOP-FRHS-1.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could misinterpret plant conditions and incorrectly determine that with the given conditions, FRHS-1 allows the crew to proceed and establish the required RCS Bleed Path. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could misinterpret plant conditions and incorrectly determine that with the given conditions, FRHS-1 allows the crew to proceed and establish the required RCS Bleed Path. For Part 2, the Reactor Head Vents and the PORVs will both vent the RCS to the PRT. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 1-EOP-FRHS-1 requires ALL Reactor Head Vents and BOTH PORVs to be opened as part of the RCS Bleed Path.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the Reactor Head Vents and the PORVs will both vent the RCS to the PRT. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that 1-EOP-FRHS-1 requires ALL Reactor Head Vents and BOTH PORVs to be opened as part of the RCS Bleed Path.
Ref: EOP-FRHS-1 (Response To Loss Of Secondary Heat Sink) | LO: NOS05FRHS00-02 | Source: Modified Bank - ILOT 1601 NRC RO 64 | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q65 — LOCA-5 RCS Depressurization and Upper Head Voiding W/E11 Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation-EA1.3 (3.7)
Given:
• The crew is preparing to perform the RCS Depressurization To Minimize Subcooling Steps of 1-EOP-LOCA-5 (Loss Of Emergency Recirculation)
• ALL RCPs are stopped
• PZR Level is 10%
• RCS Subcooling is 35 °F

At time 16:15:00
• The RCS depressurization has started

At time 16:15:30 (30 seconds later)
• PZR Level is 45% and rising
• RCS Subcooling is 25 °F

In accordance with 1-EOP-LOCA-5, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

At 16:15:00, the crew used _(1)_ to depressurize the RCS.

At 16:15:30, there _(2)_ indications that voiding is occurring in the upper head region.
A. (1) AUX SPRAY    (2) are NOT
B. (1) AUX SPRAY    (2) are
C. (1) a PZR PORV    (2) are NOT
D. (1) a PZR PORV    (2) are
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. For Part 1, IAW 1-EOP-LOCA-5 Step 24, with normal spray not available, the crew will depressurize the RCS using a PZR PORV. For Part 2, IAW 1-EOP-LOCA-5 Step 24, voiding in the upper head region will result in rapidly rising PZR Level. Since PZR Level has risen 35% in 30 seconds, there are indications that voiding is occurring in the upper head region.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, depressurizing the RCS using a PZR PORV will result in a loss of RCS inventory. The candidate may conclude that losing RCS inventory is not desirable and incorrectly conclude that the RCS will be depressurized using AUX SPRAY. For Part 2, the candidate may not understand the expected indications associated with voiding in the upper head region. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that there are not indications that voiding is occurring in the upper head region.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, depressurizing the RCS using a PZR PORV will result in a loss of RCS inventory. The candidate may conclude that losing RCS inventory is not desirable and incorrectly conclude that the RCS will be depressurized using AUX SPRAY. Part 2 is correct.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate may not understand the expected indications associated with voiding in the upper head region. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that there are not indications that voiding is occurring in the upper head region.
Ref: 1-EOP-LOCA-5 (Loss Of Emergency Recirculation) | LO: NOS05LOCA05-04 | Source: Bank - ILOT NRC 1601 RO 65 | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q66 — LOSC-2 AFW Pump Isolation and Flow Control W/E12 Uncontrolled Depressurization of all Steam Generators-EK3.3 (3.5)
Given:
• A Reactor Trip and Safety Injection Actuation have occurred
• The 1C 4KV VITAL BUS is de-energized due to an electrical fault on the bus
• The 11 AFW Pump will NOT start
• The crew has just transitioned to 1-EOP-LOSC-2 (Multiple Steam Generator Depressurization)
• The RCS cooldown rate is 120 °F / HR

In accordance with 1-EOP-LOSC-2, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The crew _(1)_ isolate steam to the 13 AFW Pump.

AFW flow will be controlled / reduced to _(2)_.
A. (1) will    (2) maintain SG NR Levels less than 33%
B. (1) will    (2) no less than 1.0E04 LB/HR to each SG
C. (1) will NOT    (2) maintain SG NR Levels less than 33%
D. (1) will NOT    (2) no less than 1.0E04 LB/HR to each SG
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. For Part 1 and based on the question stem, ONLY 11 MDAFW Pump is not available. IAW 1-EOP-LOSC-2 Step 1, since the 13 AFW Pump is NOT the only source of AFW flow, steam will be isolated to the 13 AFW pump. For Part 2 and IAW 1-EOP-LOSC-2 Step 5, with RCS cooldown rate greater than 100 °F / HR, AFW flow will be reduced to no less than 1.0E04 LB/HR to each SG.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, if the RCS cooldown rate was less than 100 °F / HR, the crew will control AFW flow to maintain SG NR Levels less than 33%. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that with the given plant conditions, AFW flow will be controlled to maintain SG NR Levels less than 33%.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, if NO MDAFW Pump was available, then 1-EOP-LOSC-2 requires steam NOT to be isolated to the 13 AFW Pump. Based on the plant conditions, the candidate could not recognize that 12 AFW Pump is available. This would cause the candidate to incorrectly deduce that steam will NOT be isolated to the 13 AFW Pump. For Part 2, if the RCS cooldown rate was less than 100 °F / HR, the crew will control AFW flow to maintain SG NR Levels less than 33%. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that with the given plant conditions, AFW flow will be controlled to maintain SG NR Levels less than 33%.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, if NO MDAFW Pump was available, then 1-EOP-LOSC-2 requires steam NOT to be isolated to the 13 AFW Pump. Based on the plant conditions, the candidate could not recognize that 12 AFW Pump is available. This would cause the candidate to incorrectly deduce that steam will NOT be isolated to the 13 AFW Pump. Part 2 is correct.
Ref: 1-EOP-LOSC-2 (Multiple Steam Generator Depressurization) | LO: NOS05LOCS02-03 | Source: Modified Bank - ILOT 1601 NRC EXAM - RO Q66 | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q67 — Continuous Rod Motion Entry Conditions APE: 001 Continuous Rod Withdrawal-AA1.07 (3.3)
Given:

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

S2.OP-AB.ROD-0003 (CONTINUOUS ROD MOTION) entry conditions are met when rods withdraw _(1)_ a MINIMUM of _(2)_ steps at steady state conditions.
A. (1) or insert    (2) 3
B. (1) or insert    (2) 2
C. (1) ONLY    (2) 3
D. (1) ONLY    (2) 2
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. S2.OP-AB.ROD-0003 (CONTINUOUS ROD MOTION) entry conditions are met when rods withdraw or insert a MINIMUM of 3 steps at steady state conditions.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, S2.OP-AB.ROD-0003 basis discusses that rods can step up to 2 steps as a result of process noise. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that S2.OP-AB.ROD-0003 entry conditions are met when rods step a MINIMUM of 2 steps at steady state conditions.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that S2.OP-AB.ROD-0003 (CONTINUOUS ROD MOTION) entry conditions are met when rods withdraw ONLY. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that S2.OP-AB.ROD-0003 (CONTINUOUS ROD MOTION) entry conditions are met when rods withdraw ONLY. For Part 2, S2.OP-AB.ROD-0003 basis discusses that rods can step up to 2 steps as a result of process noise. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that S2.OP-AB.ROD-0003 entry conditions are met when rods step a MINIMUM of 2 steps at steady state conditions.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.ROD-0003 (Continuous Rod Motion) | LO: NOS05ABROD3-05 | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q68 — Fuel Handling Incident Canal Gate Valve APE 036 Fuel Handling Incidents-AK3.02 (2.9)
Given:
• The crew is performing S2.OP-AB.FUEL-0001 (FUEL HANDLING INCIDENT) due to a fuel incident inside containment
• The canal gate valve is open

In accordance with S2.OP-AB.FUEL-0001, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The crew _(1)_ required to close the canal gate valve.

The canal gate valve can ONLY be FULLY closed with the fuel transfer cart _(2)_.
A. (1) is NOT    (2) inside containment
B. (1) is NOT    (2) in the Fuel Handling Building
C. (1) is    (2) inside containment
D. (1) is    (2) in the Fuel Handling Building
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW S2.OP-AB.FUEL-0001, the canal gate valve will be closed for any fuel handling incident (Step 3.16). For Part 2, there is a mechanical interlock that allows the canal gate valve to be fully closed only when the fuel transfer cart is inside containment.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, since the FHB ventilation and containment ventilation are designed to handle a fuel handling incident, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that S2.OP-AB.FUEL-0001 does not require the canal gate valve to be closed. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, since the FHB ventilation and containment ventilation are designed to handle a fuel handling incident, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that S2.OP-AB.FUEL-0001 does not require the canal gate valve to be closed. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly determine that the canal gate valve can ONLY be FULLY closed with the fuel transfer cart in the Fuel Handling Building.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly determine that the canal gate valve can ONLY be FULLY closed with the fuel transfer cart in the Fuel Handling Building.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.FUEL-0001 (FUEL HANDLING INCIDENT) | LO: NOS05REFUEL-11 | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q69 — SG Tube Leak Subcooling Calculation APE: 037 Steam Generator Tube Leak-AK1.01 (2.9)
Given:
• The crew is performing S2.OP-AB.SG-0001 (STEAM GENERATOR TUBE LEAK) Step 3.37.B, "DEPRESSURIZE the RCS concurrently with cooldown AND MAINTAIN 20 to 40°F subcooling"
• The subcooling monitor is NOT functional

At time 15:00
• TAVG is 530 °F
• The Hottest CET is 540 °F
• RCS Pressure is 1200 psig

Based on information contained in Steam Tables, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

At 15:00, the RCS is subcooled by approximately ___ °F.
A. 25
B. 29
C. 35
D. 39
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. The candidate must first determine TSAT for 1200 psig. Since the steam tables are in PSIA, 1200 psig must be converted to PSIA: (1200 + 15) = 1215 PSIA. Using steam tables (and interpolating) TSAT of 1200 PSIG is approximately 569 °F. Subcooling is based on the Hottest CET which is 540 °F. Subcooling = TSAT - Hottest CET = 569 - 540 = 29 °F.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. 25 is plausible if the candidate incorrectly determines TSAT for 1200 psig to be 565 °F and correctly uses the CET reading to calculate subcooling. This would be done by incorrectly entering the steam tables at 1185 PSIA (1200 - 15 = 1185). Subcooling would then be calculated at 565 - 540 = 25 °F.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. 35 is plausible if the candidate incorrectly determines TSAT for 1200 psig to be 565 °F and incorrectly uses TAVG to calculate subcooling. This would be done by incorrectly entering the steam tables at 1185 PSIA (1200 - 15 = 1185). Subcooling would then be calculated at 565 - 530 = 35 °F.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. 39 is plausible if the candidate correctly determines TSAT for 1200 psig = 569 °F but incorrectly uses TAVG to calculate subcooling (569 - 530) = 39 °F.
Ref: Steam Tables | LO: NOS05ABSGTL-05 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q70 — Loss of Condenser Vacuum Trip Criteria APE: 051 Loss of Condenser Vacuum-AA2.02 (3.9)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power

At time 15:00
• The crew is reducing turbine load at 2 % / min in an attempt to stabilize condenser backpressure in accordance with S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 (LOSS OF CONDENSER VACUUM)

In accordance with S2.OP-AB.COND-0001, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

___ is the MINIMUM load reduction rate at which a reactor trip is required.
A. 15
B. 10
C. 7.5
D. 5
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. IAW S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 CAS, if the turbine load reduction rate needs to increase to a MINIMUM of 5 % / min to stabilize condenser backpressure, then the crew is REQUIRED to TRIP the Reactor.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Load reductions up to 15% / min are all within the capability of rod control and steam dumps. Consequently, all of the distractors are plausible.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Load reductions up to 15% / min are all within the capability of rod control and steam dumps. Consequently, all of the distractors are plausible.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. Load reductions up to 15% / min are all within the capability of rod control and steam dumps. Consequently, all of the distractors are plausible.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 | LO: NOS05ABCOND-05 | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q71 — CR Evacuation AFW / PZR Pressure APE: 068 Control Room Evacuation-AA2.06 (4.1)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power and stable

At time 15:00:00
• The crew enters S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 (Control Room Evacuation)
• The Reactor Trip has been confirmed
• The Turbine has been successfully tripped

In accordance with S2.OP-AB.CR-0001, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

If Control Room conditions permit, the crew will _(1)_ until total flow drops to 22E04 LB/HR.

After the Control Room has been evacuated and in accordance with S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 Attachment 6 (Plant Operator), RCS pressure will be maintained by cycling PZR Heaters _(2)_.
A. (1) LOWER 23 AFW Pump speed (2) and PZR Spray Valves
B. (1) LOWER 23 AFW Pump speed (2) ONLY
C. (1) THROTTLE 21 and 22 AFW Pump Steam Generator Inlet Valves (2) and PZR Spray Valves
D. (1) THROTTLE 21 and 22 AFW Pump Steam Generator Inlet Valves (2) ONLY
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. IAW S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 Immediate Actions, if Control Room conditions permit, the crew will LOWER 23 AFW Pump speed until total flow drops to 22E04 LB/HR.
✗ A. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, PZR Heaters and Spray are the normal methods to maintain RCS pressure. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that after the control room has been evacuated that RCS pressure will be maintained by cycling PZR Heaters and PZR Spray Valves.
✗ C. For Part 1, ALL of the AFW pumps will automatically start following a Reactor Trip from 100% Power. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the crew will throttle AFW flow from the MDAFW Pumps (21 and 22 AFW Pumps). For Part 2, PZR Heaters and Spray are the normal methods to maintain RCS pressure. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that after the control room has been evacuated that RCS pressure will be maintained by cycling PZR Heaters and PZR Spray Valves.
✗ D. For Part 1, ALL of the AFW pumps will automatically start following a Reactor Trip from 100% Power. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the crew will throttle AFW flow from the MDAFW Pumps (21 and 22 AFW Pumps). Part 2 is correct.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 (Control Room Evacuation) | LO: NOS05ABCR01-05 | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q72 — FRCC-1 ECCS Valve Alignment EPE: 074 Inadequate Core Cooling-EA1.27 (4.2)
Given:
• The crew is performing 1-EOP-FRCC-1 (RESPONSE TO INADEQUATE CORE COOLING) Step 3, "Safeguards Valve Alignment"
• The SECs are operating in Mode 1
• The current position of the following valves are:

1SJ41SJ51SJ121SJ1311SW122
BIT INLETBIT INLETBIT OUTLETBIT OUTLETSW TO 11 CC HX
OPENCLOSEDOPENOPENOPEN

In accordance with 1-EOP-FRCC-1, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The crew _(1)_ attempt to open 1SJ5 and _(2)_ attempt to close 11SW122.
A. (1) will (2) will NOT
B. (1) will (2) will
C. (1) will NOT (2) will NOT
D. (1) will NOT (2) will
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. With SECs operating in Mode 1 and IAW 1-EOP-FRCC-1 (RESPONSE TO INADEQUATE CORE COOLING) Step 3, the crew is required to open 1SJ5 and is NOT required to close 11SW122.
✗ B. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, 11SW122 is required to be closed when the SECs are in MODE 3. The candidate could incorrectly determine the SECs are in MODE 3 and conclude that 11SW122 is required to be closed.
✗ C. For Part 1, 1SJ4 is open and only 1SJ4 or 1SJ5 must be open for ECCS flow into the BIT to be initiated. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that FRCC-1 only requires 1SJ4 or 1SJ5 to be open. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. For Part 1, 1SJ4 is open and only 1SJ4 or 1SJ5 must be open for ECCS flow into the BIT to be initiated. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that FRCC-1 only requires 1SJ4 or 1SJ5 to be open. For Part 2, 11SW122 is required to be closed when the SECs are in MODE 3. The candidate could incorrectly determine the SECs are in MODE 3 and conclude that 11SW122 is required to be closed.
Ref: 1-EOP-FRCC-1 (Response to Inadequate Core Cooling) | LO: NOS05FRCC00-04 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q73 — LOCA-2 CAS ECCS Restart Criteria WE03 LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization-EK2.2 (3.7)
Given:
• The crew has just completed the SI Pump Reduction and Charging Pump Reduction steps of 2-EOP-LOCA-2 (POST LOCA COOLDOWN AND DEPRESSURIZATION)
• Containment Pressure is 2.4 psig

Considering ONLY the following plant conditions below:
1. RCS SUBCOOLING 0°F
2. PZR LEVEL CAN NOT BE MAINTAINED GREATER THAN 11%

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

In accordance with 2-EOP-LOCA-2 CAS, the crew is required to start ECCS Pumps as necessary to restore the required plant parameter(s) when ___ is/are met.
A. ONLY Condition 1
B. ONLY Condition 2
C. EITHER Condition
D. ONLY BOTH Conditions
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. IAW 2-EOP-LOCA-2 CAS, RCS SUBCOOLING 0°F or PZR LEVEL CAN NOT BE MAINTAINED GREATER THAN 11% will require the crew to start ECCS Pumps as necessary to restore the required plant parameter(s).
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Since all of the distractors contain a portion of the correct answer, all distractors are plausible.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Since all of the distractors contain a portion of the correct answer, all distractors are plausible.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Since all of the distractors contain a portion of the correct answer, all distractors are plausible.
Ref: 2-EOP-LOCA-2 (Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization) | LO: NOS05LOCA02-03 | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q74 — FRTS-1 RCS Soak Purpose WE08 Pressurized Thermal Shock-EK3.1 (3.4)
Given:
• The crew is preparing to perform an RCS soak in accordance with 2-EOP-FRTS-1 (RESPONSE TO IMMINENT PRESSURIZED THERMAL SHOCK CONDITIONS)

In accordance with 2-EOP-FRTS-1, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

During the RCS soak, the crew must maintain RCS temperature stable _(1)_.

The RCS soak is designed to reduce the temperature stresses present in the _(2)_.
A. (1) and NOT raise RCS pressure (2) Reactor Vessel
B. (1) and NOT raise RCS pressure (2) RCS piping and pressurizer
C. (1) ONLY (2) Reactor Vessel
D. (1) ONLY (2) RCS piping and pressurizer
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW 2-EOP-FRTS-1 Step 29, during the RCS soak, the crew must maintain RCS temperature stable and NOT raise RCS pressure. For Part 2 and IAW 2-EOP-FRTS-1, the RCS soak is designed to reduce the temperature stresses present in the Reactor Vessel.
✗ B. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the RCS piping and the pressurizer are components that will be affected by an RCS soak. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the RCS soak is designed to reduce the temperature stresses present in the RCS piping and pressurizer.
✗ C. For Part 1, since the RCS soak is designed to reduce thermal stresses, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that during the RCS soak, ONLY RCS temperature is required to remain stable. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. For Part 1, since the RCS soak is designed to reduce thermal stresses, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that during the RCS soak, ONLY RCS temperature is required to remain stable. For Part 2, the RCS soak is designed to reduce the temperature stresses present in the Reactor Vessel.
Ref: 2-EOP-FRTS-1 (Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Conditions) | LO: NOS05FRTS00-02 | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q75 — CFST Containment Flooding FRCE-2 WE15 Containment Flooding-G2.1.19 (3.9)
Given:
• The crew is implementing the Critical Safety Function Status Trees
• SPDS indicates the following: [SPDS display showing CONTAINMENT ENVIRONMENT status — image in exam PDF]

Assuming the Critical Safety Function Status Trees have been verified, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

SPDS indicates that CONTAINMENT ___
A. Pressure is ~47 psig
B. Radiation is ~2 R/HR
C. Sump level is ~78% (75% ADVERSE)
D. Pressure is ~15 psig and <47 psig and AT LEAST one Containment Spray Pump is running
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. IAW EOP-CFST-1 and SPDS, FRCE-2 entry conditions are met. FRCE-2 is performed when Containment Sump level is ~78% (75% ADVERSE).
✗ A. Containment Pressure, Containment Sump Pump status and Containment Radiation are parameters that can cause entry conditions to FRCE-1 (Red), FRCE-1 (Purple) and FRCE-3 (Yellow) to be met. Consequently, all of the distractors are plausible.
✗ B. Containment Pressure, Containment Sump Pump status and Containment Radiation are parameters that can cause entry conditions to FRCE-1 (Red), FRCE-1 (Purple) and FRCE-3 (Yellow) to be met. Consequently, all of the distractors are plausible.
✗ D. Containment Pressure, Containment Sump Pump status and Containment Radiation are parameters that can cause entry conditions to FRCE-1 (Red), FRCE-1 (Purple) and FRCE-3 (Yellow) to be met. Consequently, all of the distractors are plausible.
Ref: 2-EOP-CFST-1 (Critical Safety Function Status Trees) | LO: NOS05TRP001-08 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q76 (SRO) — LOCA-2 Charging Pump Reduction 008 PZR Vapor Space Accident-AA2.23 (4.3)
Given:
REFERENCE PROVIDED

• 2PR3 (PZR SAFETY VALVE) is fully open and will NOT reseat
• The crew is performing 2-EOP-LOCA-2 (POST LOCA COOLDOWN AND DEPRESSURIZATION) Step 22, "Charging Pump Reduction"
• 21 and 22 Charging Pumps are running
• 21 and 22 SI Pumps are running
• 21 and 22 RHR Pumps are stopped but available
• Containment Pressure is 2.5 psig
• ONLY 23 RCP is running
• RCS Subcooling is 50 °F
• PZR Level is 30%
• RCS T-HOTs are reading as follows:

21 T-HOT22 T-HOT23 T-HOT24 T-HOT
375 °F370 °F364 °F368 °F

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The crew's NEXT Action(s) will be to ___
A. GO TO 2-EOP-LOCA-2 POST STEP 34
B. STOP 21 or 22 CHARGING Pump ONLY PER 2-EOP-LOCA-2 Step 22.4
C. RETURN TO 2-EOP-LOCA-2 POST STEP 14
D. RUN AT LEAST ONE RHR PUMP IN SI MODE THEN STOP 21 or 22 CHARGING Pump PER 2-EOP-LOCA-2 Steps 22.2 and 22.4
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. Containment Conditions are NORMAL since Containment Pressure is less than 4.0 psig. IAW 2-EOP-LOCA-2 POST Step 22 Table C, Required Subcooling with 2 SI Pumps Running, 1 RCP Running and NORMAL Containment Conditions is 38 °F. Actual subcooling is 50 °F. Since the subcooling requirement is met, PZR level must be greater than 25% for NORMAL Containment Conditions. Actual PZR Level is 30%. Since the RCS subcooling and PZR Level requirements are BOTH met, the crew's next action (IAW 2-EOP-LOCA-2 POST Step 22) is to stop 21 or 22 Charging Pump.
✗ A. GOING TO 2-EOP-LOCA-2 POST STEP 34 is an option for 2-EOP-LOCA-2 (POST LOCA COOLDOWN AND DEPRESSURIZATION) Step 22, "Charging Pump Reduction". This would require the candidate to incorrectly perform Step 22.1 (Is RCS Subcooling Greater Than Required By Table C) and then correctly perform 22.2 (Are At Least Two T-Hots less than 365 °F).
✗ C. RETURNING TO 2-EOP-LOCA-2 POST STEP 14 is an option for 2-EOP-LOCA-2 (POST LOCA COOLDOWN AND DEPRESSURIZATION) Step 22, "Charging Pump Reduction". This would require the candidate to correctly perform Step 22.1 (Is RCS Subcooling Greater Than Required By Table C) and then to incorrectly perform Step 22.4 (Is PZR Level Greater Than 25% (33% Adverse)).
✗ D. RUNNING AT LEAST ONE RHR PUMP IN SI MODE THEN STOP 21 or 22 CHARGING Pump is an option for 2-EOP-LOCA-2 (POST LOCA COOLDOWN AND DEPRESSURIZATION) Step 22, "Charging Pump Reduction". This would require the candidate to incorrectly perform Step 22.1 (Is RCS Subcooling Greater Than Required By Table C) and then incorrectly perform 22.2 (Are At Least Two T-Hots less than 365 °F).
Ref: 2-EOP-LOCA-2 POST Step 22 | LO: NOS05LOCA02-03 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q77 (SRO) — LOCA-1 RWST Lo Transfer to Cold Leg Recirc EPE: 011 Large Break LOCA-G2.1.27 (3.9)
Given:
• The crew is performing 2-EOP-LOCA-1 (LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT)

At time 11:00
• The RWST LEVEL LO alarm has actuated
• RCS Pressure is 125 psig and slowly lowering
• Containment Pressure is 20 psig and slowly rising
• ALL T-COLDS are 325 °F and slowly lowering

In accordance with 2-EOP-LOCA-1, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The crew will ___
A. REMAIN in 2-EOP-LOCA-1
B. PERFORM 2-EOP-LOCA-1 and S2.OP-SO.CVC-0006 Section 5.8 (Makeup to RWST Using CVCS Makeup System) CONCURRENTLY
C. GO TO 2-EOP-LOCA-4 (TRANSFER TO HOT LEG RECIRCULATION)
D. GO TO 2-EOP-LOCA-3 (TRANSFER TO COLD LEG RECIRCULATION)
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. IAW 2-EOP-LOCA-1, the crew will go to 2-EOP-LOCA-3 (TRANSFER TO COLD LEG RECIRCULATION) when the "RWST LEVEL LO" ALARM actuates.
✗ A. The candidate could incorrectly determine that remaining in 2-EOP-LOCA-1 (LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT) is correct and the lowering RWST level will not be addressed until the "RWST LEVEL LO-LO" ALARM actuates.
✗ B. Since the "RWST LEVEL LO" ALARM has actuated, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the crew is required to perform 2-EOP-LOCA-1 and S2.OP-SO.CVC-0006 Section 5.8 (Makeup to RWST Using CVCS Makeup System) CONCURRENTLY.
✗ C. The candidate could correctly identify the need to swap ECCS pump suctions to the containment sump when the "RWST LEVEL LO" ALARM actuates, but incorrectly conclude that performance of 2-EOP-LOCA-4 (TRANSFER TO HOT LEG RECIRCULATION) is required.
Ref: 2-EOP-LOCA-1 | LO: NOS05LOCA01-05 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q78 (SRO) — Loss of RHR in Mode 4 / Shutdown LOCA APE: 025 Loss of RHRS-G2.1.27 (3.8)
Given:
• Unit 2 is in MODE 4
• 21 RHR Loop is in service
• PZR Level is 10% and stable

At time 17:00
• The crew enters S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 (Loss Of RHR) due to a malfunction of 21RH18 (RHR HX FLOW CONT VALVE)

At time 17:05 (5 minutes later)
• PZR level is 9% and lowering
• 2R11A (Containment Particulate Monitor) reading is rising

In accordance with S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

At 17:05, the crew will _(1)_.
A. IMMEDIATELY GO TO S2.OP-AB.LOCA-0001 (Shutdown LOCA)
B. PERFORM S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 Attachment 9 (Steam Generator Reflux Cooling)
C. IMMEDIATELY GO TO S2.OP-AB.RHR-0002 (Loss of RHR at Reduced Inventory)
D. CONTINUE in the main body of S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 (Loss Of RHR)
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. IAW S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 (Loss Of RHR) CAS, going to S2.OP-AB.LOCA-0001 (Shutdown LOCA) is correct since the Unit is in MODE 4 when the RCS Inventory was lost.
✗ B. Performing S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 Attachment 9 (Steam Generator Reflux Cooling) would have been correct if at any time a complete loss of all vital buses occurs, NOT as a result of a Beyond-Design-Basis-External-Event (IAW S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 CAS).
✗ C. Going to S2.OP-AB.RHR-0002 (Loss of RHR at Reduced Inventory) would have been correct if RCS had been aligned for operation <101 ft. elevation (S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 Steps 3.3 and 3.4).
✗ D. "START Safety Injection and Charging Pumps as required and CONTROL Pressurizer level between 5% and 50% while maintaining RHR System in service" would have been correct if the Unit was in MODE 5 or 6.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 (Loss Of RHR) | LO: NOS05ABRHR1-05 | Source: Modified Bank (ILOT 16-01 NRC SRO Q12) | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q79 (SRO) — LOOP / EDG Trip / TS 3.8.1.1 LCO 3.0.4.b 056 Loss of Offsite Power-AA2.22 (3.6)
Given:
• Unit 2 is in MODE 4 during a plant startup

At time 01:00
• A LOOP occurs

At time 02:00
• EDG 2A Engine Lube Oil Header Low Pressure local alarm and EDG 2A Engine Generator Tripped local alarm actuate

At time 02:10
• EDG 2A is declared inoperable

At time 04:00
• Offsite power has been restored
• ALL independent AC circuits between the offsite transmission network and the onsite Class 1E distribution system are OPERABLE
• Maintenance estimates that the 2A EDG will be repaired within the next 24 hours

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

At 02:00, 2A EDG tripped when Engine Lube Oil Header Low Pressure FIRST lowered below _(1)_ psig.

In accordance with Technical Specifications, Unit 2 _(2)_.
A. (1) 40 (2) can go to MODE 3 ONLY if a risk assessment is performed
B. (1) 40 (2) can NOT go to MODE 3 until 2A EDG is restored to OPERABLE status
C. (1) 60 (2) can go to MODE 3 ONLY if a risk assessment is performed
D. (1) 60 (2) can NOT go to MODE 3 until 2A EDG is restored to OPERABLE status
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW S2.OP-AR.DG-0001, 2A EDG tripped when Engine Lube Oil Header Low Pressure FIRST lowered below 40 psig. For Part 2: At 01:00, the crew is in LCO 3.8.1.1 REQUIRED ACTION d. However, at 04:00, LCO 3.8.1.1 REQUIRED ACTION d is no longer applicable and LCO 3.8.1.1 REQUIRED ACTION b and h are now applicable. LCO 3.8.1.1 REQUIRED ACTION h states LCO 3.0.4.b is not applicable to DGs. Since LCO 3.0.4.b is not applicable to the DGs, Unit 2 can NOT go to MODE 3 until 2A EDG is restored to OPERABLE status.
✗ A. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly interpret LCO 3.8.1.1 to allow a MODE change if a risk assessment is performed.
✗ C. For Part 1, the EDG ENGINE LUBE OIL HEADER LOW PRESSURE ALARM actuates when pressure lowers to 60 psig. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude the EDG will trip when Engine Lube Oil Header Low Pressure FIRST lowered below 60 psig. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly interpret LCO 3.8.1.1 to allow a MODE change if a risk assessment is performed.
✗ D. For Part 1, the EDG ENGINE LUBE OIL HEADER LOW PRESSURE ALARM actuates when pressure lowers to 60 psig. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude the EDG will trip when Engine Lube Oil Header Low Pressure FIRST lowered below 60 psig. Part 2 is correct.
Ref: S2.OP-AR.DG-0001, LCO 3.8.1.1, LCO 3.0.4.b | LO: NOS05TECHSPEC-12 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q80 (SRO) — Loss of Control Air PZR Level / RCS Cooldown 065 Loss of Instrument Air-G2.1.28 (4.1)
Given:
• Unit 2 is in MODE 3 during a plant startup
• 22 Charging Pump is in service
• TAVG is 547 °F
• Control Air Pressure is 84 psig and lowering
• PZR level is 25% and rising

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

Any time Pressurizer Level approaches a MINIMUM of _(1)_%, then the crew is required to commence an RCS Cooldown to 350 °F using guidance contained in _(2)_.
A. (1) 70 (2) S2.OP-AB.CA-0001 (LOSS OF CONTROL AIR)
B. (1) 70 (2) S2.OP-IO.ZZ-0006 (HOT STANDBY TO COLD SHUTDOWN)
C. (1) 90 (2) S2.OP-AB.CA-0001 (LOSS OF CONTROL AIR)
D. (1) 90 (2) S2.OP-IO.ZZ-0006 (HOT STANDBY TO COLD SHUTDOWN)
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. Any time Pressurizer Level approaches a MINIMUM of 90%, then the crew is required to commence an RCS Cooldown to 350 °F using guidance contained in S2.OP-AB.CA-0001.
✗ A. For Part 1, 70% is the PZR LEVEL HI Bezel Alarm. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude a cooldown to 350 °F is required any time PZR Level approaches 70%. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. For Part 1, 70% is the PZR LEVEL HI Bezel Alarm. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude a cooldown to 350 °F is required any time PZR Level approaches 70%. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that S2.OP-AB.CA-0001 sends the crew to IOP S2.OP-IO.ZZ-0006 (HOT STANDBY TO COLD SHUTDOWN) for the cooldown.
✗ D. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that S2.OP-AB.CA-0001 sends the crew to IOP S2.OP-IO.ZZ-0006 (HOT STANDBY TO COLD SHUTDOWN) for the cooldown.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.CA-0001 (Loss of Control Air) | LO: NOS05ABCA01-07 | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q81 — LOCA Outside Containment Transition WE04 LOCA Outside Containment - EA2.1 (4.3)
Given:
• The crew has just transitioned to 2-EOP-LOCA-6 (LOCA Outside Containment)

In accordance with 2-EOP-LOCA-6, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

If the crew is NOT successful in finding and isolating the leak during performance of the 2-EOP-LOCA-6, the crew will transition to _(2)_.
A. 2 EOP-LOCA-1 (LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT)
B. 2-EOP-LOCA-5 (LOSS OF EMERGENCY RECIRCULATION)
C. 2 EOP-LOCA-2 (POST LOCA COOLDOWN AND DEPRESSURIZATION)
D. S2.OP-AB.LOCA-0001 (SHUTDOWN LOCA)
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. IAW 2-EOP-LOCA-6, if the crew is NOT successful in finding and isolating the leak during performance of the 2-EOP-LOCA-6, the crew will transition to 2-EOP-LOCA-5 (LOSS OF EMERGENCY RECIRCULATION).
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Transitioning to 2-EOP-LOCA-1 from 2-EOP-LOCA-6 would be correct if the crew had isolated the leak during performance of the 2-EOP-LOCA-6.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. 2-EOP-LOCA-2 is another procedure that deals with a loss of RCS inventory. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that transitioning to 2-EOP-LOCA-2 from 2-EOP-LOCA-6 is appropriate.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. S2.OP-AB.LOCA-0001 is another procedure that deals with a loss of RCS inventory. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that transitioning to S2.OP-AB.LOCA-0001 from 2-EOP-LOCA-6 is appropriate.
Ref: EOP-LOCA-6 (LOCA Outside Containment) | LO: NOS05LOCA06-03 — Describe the EOP mitigation strategy during LOCA OUTSIDE CONTAINMENT | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q82 — PZR Level Control Malfunction Charging 028 PZR Level Control Malfunction - A2.03 (4.2)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power
• 21 Charging Pump is in service
• 21 and 22 Group Backup PZR Heaters are in AUTOMATIC
• The RO notices the following parameters at 09:00 and 09:40:

Parameter09:0009:40
Charging Master Flow Controller Flow Demand36%75%
Charging Flow88 GPM99 GPM
PZR Level59.0%64.3%
PZR Pressure2235 psig2236 psig
21-24 RCP Seal Injection Flow7.9 GPM8.9 GPM
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

At 09:40, 21 and 22 Group Backup PZR heaters are _(1)_.
The crew will reduce charging flow in accordance with _(2)_.
A. (1) ON (2) S2.OP-SO.CVC-0001 (CHARGING, LETDOWN AND SEAL INJECTION)
B. (1) ON (2) S2.OP-AB.CVC-0001 (LOSS OF CHARGING)
C. (1) OFF (2) S2.OP-SO.CVC-0001 (CHARGING, LETDOWN AND SEAL INJECTION)
D. (1) OFF (2) S2.OP-AB.CVC-0001 (LOSS OF CHARGING)
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. For Part 1 and based on plant parameters at 09:40, 21 and 22 Group PZR Backup Heaters are ON (Actual PZR level is 5% or more greater than Program PZR level (64.3 - 59.0 = +5.3%)). For Part 2, with charging flow demand, charging flow and PZR level ALL rising, this is an indication of a failure of Charging Master Flow Controller. Additionally, at 09:40 the only control room alarms present in the control (associated with the failed Charging Master Flow Controller) are OHA E-20 (PZR HTR ON LVL HI) and Control Console Bezel 3-18 PZR LEVEL HI Alarm. In accordance with S2.OP-AR.ZZ-00005 OHA E-20 ARP, the crew will REDUCE charging IAW S2.OP-SO.CVC-0001 (CHARGING, LETDOWN AND SEAL INJECTION). Control Console Bezel 3-18 PZR LEVEL Alarm Response Procedure refers the crew to OHA E-20 ARP.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, S2.OP-AB.CVC-0001 (LOSS OF CHARGING) would correctly address a failure of Charging Master Flow Controller in which charging flow is REDUCED. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the crew will reduce charging flow in accordance with S2.OP-AB.CVC-0001 (LOSS OF CHARGING).
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, actual PZR Pressure is normal at 09:40. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the Backup heaters are OFF. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, actual PZR Pressure is normal at 09:40. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the Backup heaters are OFF. For Part 2, S2.OP-AB.CVC-0001 (LOSS OF CHARGING) would correctly address a failure of Charging Master Flow Controller in which charging flow is REDUCED. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the crew will reduce charging flow in accordance with S2.OP-AB.CVC-0001 (LOSS OF CHARGING).
Ref: S2.OP-AR.ZZ-00005, S2.OP-AB.CVC-0001 (LOSS OF CHARGING) | LO: NOS05ABCVC1-04 — Given a set of initial plant conditions, determine the appropriate abnormal procedure | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q83 — EDG Lube Oil Trip and SR 4.8.1.1 068 Control Room Evacuation - G2.4.50 (4.2)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power
• 2B EDG is supplying 2B 4KV Vital Bus in parallel with 23 SPT for a surveillance run

At time 09:30 on January 7th
• The crew evacuates the control room

At time 09:50 on January 7th
• The crew is successfully proceeding through S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 (CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION) when Local alarm "LUBE OIL HI TEMP" and "ENGINE GENERATOR TRIPPED" alarms in the EDG Control Room

At time 10:00 on January 7th
• The CRS declares 2B EDG inoperable and LCO 3.8.1.1 (AC SOURCES OPERATING) REQUIRED ACTION b is entered

At time 10:30 on January 7th
• LCO 3.8.1.1 REQUIRED ACTION b.1 (Demonstrate the OPERABILITY of the independent AC circuits by performing Surveillance Requirement 4.8.1.1.1.a) is completed for the FIRST time

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The 2B EDG tripped when Lube Oil Temperature FIRST exceeded _(1)_.
The SECOND performance of SR 4.8.1.1.1.a must be completed within a MAXIMUM of _(2)_ hours after the 2B EDG is declared inoperable.
A. (1) 190 (2) 8
B. (1) 190 (2) 9
C. (1) 205 (2) 8
D. (1) 205 (2) 9
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW 2B DG Alarm Response Manual, the 2B EDG tripped when Lube Oil Temperature FIRST exceeded 205 °F. For Part 2 and IAW Technical Specifications, the crew has 1 hour to perform SR 4.8.1.1.1.a for the first time then an additional 8 hours to perform SR 4.8.1.1.1.a for the second time (9 hours from entering the LCO).
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the local "LUBE OIL HI TEMP" comes in at 190 °F. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly determine that the EDG tripped when the local "LUBE OIL HI TEMP" actuates. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that Surveillance Requirement 4.8.1.1.1.a needs to be performed every 24 hours after it was initially performed (25 hours from entering the LCO).
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the local "LUBE OIL HI TEMP" comes in at 190 °F. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly determine that the EDG tripped when the local "LUBE OIL HI TEMP" actuates. Part 2 is correct.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that Surveillance Requirement 4.8.1.1.1.a needs to be performed every 24 hours after it was initially performed (25 hours from entering the LCO).
Ref: S2.OP-AR-DG-0002 Alarms Manual | LO: NOS05TECHSPEC-12 — Describe the general component and parameter categories addressed by TS Sections 3/4.1 through 3/4.12 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q84 — RCS Specific Activity LCO 3.0.4.c 076 High Reactor Coolant Activity - AA2.03 (3.0)
REFERENCE PROVIDED

Given:
• A plant heat up is in progress
• TAVG is 470 °F
• 2R31 (Letdown Line-Failed Fuel) is in alarm
• RCS Sampling has confirmed LCO 3.4.9 (Specific Activity) is NOT met

At time 12:00
• Periodic sampling of the RCS verifies the RCS Specific Activity is lowering but it is still above the LCO limit

In accordance with Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The LCO 3.4.9 specific activity limit for DOSE EQUIVALENT I-131 is less or equal to a MINIMUM of _(1)_ µCi/gram.
At 12:00 and in accordance with Technical Specifications, the crew _(2)_ permitted to raise TAVG ≥ 500 °F while RCS activity is still above the LCO 3.4.9 limit.
A. (1) 1.0 (2) is NOT
B. (1) 1.0 (2) is
C. (1) 100 (2) is NOT
D. (1) 100 (2) is
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW LCO 3.4.9, the LCO 3.4.9 specific activity limit for DOSE EQUIVALENT I-131 is less or equal to a MAXIMUM of 1.0 µCi/gram. For Part 2, LCO 3.0.4.c gives an allowance for LCO 3.4.9 to allow going up in MODE or other specified condition when LCO 3.4.9 is NOT met.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could fail to recognize or misunderstand the LCO 3.0.4.c exemption for LCO 3.4.9 and incorrectly conclude that the crew is NOT permitted to raise TAVG ≥ 500 °F while RCS activity is still above the LCO 3.4.9 limit.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 100 µCi/gram is another limit specified in LCO 3.4.9. For Part 2, the candidate could fail to recognize or misunderstand the LCO 3.0.4.c exemption for LCO 3.4.9 and incorrectly conclude that the crew is NOT permitted to raise TAVG ≥ 500 °F while RCS activity is still above the LCO 3.4.9 limit.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 100 µCi/gram is another limit specified in LCO 3.4.9. Part 2 is correct.
Ref: LCO 3.4.9, LCO 3.0.3 | LO: NOS05TECHSPEC-12 — Describe the general requirements associated with Specifications 3.0.1 through 3.0.6 | Source: Bank — ILOT 16-01 AUDIT SRO Q8 | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q85 — Natural Circulation RVLIS Cooldown Rate [OUTDATED] WE10 Nat Circ with Steam Void - G2.4.46 (4.2)
Given:
• The crew is performing 2-EOP-TRIP-4 (NATURAL CIRCULATION COOLDOWN)
• Wide Range Loop 22 T HOT has failed low

At time 12:00
• OHA B-11 "2B VTL INSTR BUS INVRT FAIL" actuates
• ALL Channel II indications are lost
• The crew enters S2.OP-AB.115-0002 (LOSS OF 2B 115V VITAL INSTRUMENT BUS)

At time 12:30
• The crew has just completed the RCS Stabilization Steps of 2-EOP-TRIP-4 and is now preparing to Cooldown and Depressurize the RCS
• ALL Channel II indications are still lost

In accordance with 2-EOP-TRIP-4, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The crew will transition to _(1)_ if the required RCS Cooldown Rate is greater than a MINIMUM of _(2)_ °F / Hour.

NOTE:
• 2-EOP-TRIP-5 (NATURAL CIRCULATION RAPID COOLDOWN WITH RVLIS)
• 2-EOP-TRIP-6 (NATURAL CIRCULATION RAPID COOLDOWN WITHOUT RVLIS)
A. (1) 2-EOP-TRIP-6 (2) 25
B. (1) 2-EOP-TRIP-6 (2) 50
C. (1) 2-EOP-TRIP-5 (2) 25
D. (1) 2-EOP-TRIP-5 (2) 50
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. IAW 2-EOP-TRIP-4, if RVLIS is available then the crew will transition to 2-EOP-TRIP-5 (NATURAL CIRCULATION RAPID COOLDOWN WITH RVLIS) if the required RCS Cooldown Rate is greater than a MINIMUM of 25 °F / Hour. Loop 22 THOT provides input to Train A of RVLIS. 2B Vital Instrument Bus provides the power for RVLIS Train A Microprocessor Panel. Consequently, ONLY Train A of RVLIS is inoperable at 12:30. Train B of RVLIS not affected.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could correctly identify that Train A of RVLIS is inoperable when 2B Vital Instrument Bus de-energized. The candidate could then incorrectly conclude that Train B of RVLIS becomes invalid with Wide Range Loop 22 THOT has failed low. The candidate would then incorrectly conclude that both trains of RVLIS are inoperable and performance of 2-EOP-TRIP-6 (NATURAL CIRCULATION RAPID COOLDOWN WITHOUT RVLIS) is warranted. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could correctly identify that Train A of RVLIS is inoperable when 2B Vital Instrument Bus de-energized. The candidate could then incorrectly conclude that Train B of RVLIS becomes invalid with Wide Range Loop 22 THOT has failed low. The candidate would then incorrectly conclude that both trains of RVLIS are inoperable and performance of 2-EOP-TRIP-6 (NATURAL CIRCULATION RAPID COOLDOWN WITHOUT RVLIS) is warranted. For Part 2, other EOPs and SOPs have maximum cooldown rates of 50 °F. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude transition to 2-EOP-TRIP-5 or 2-EOP-TRIP-6 is warranted when the required RCS Cooldown Rate is greater than a MINIMUM of 50 °F / Hour.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, other EOPs and SOPs have maximum cooldown rates of 50 °F. Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude transition to 2-EOP-TRIP-5 or 2-EOP-TRIP-6 is warranted when the required RCS Cooldown Rate is greater than a MINIMUM of 50 °F / Hour.
Ref: 2-EOP-TRIP-4 (NATURAL CIRCULATION COOLDOWN), S2.OP-AB.115-0002 (LOSS OF 2B 115V VITAL INSTRUMENT BUS) | LO: NOS05TRP004-06 — Describe the mitigation strategy for any NATURAL CIRCULATION COOLDOWN | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q86 — Loss of RHR EAL CA4.1 005 RHR System - G2.4.41 (4.6)
REFERENCES PROVIDED

Given:
• Unit 2 has entered MODE 3 for a planned refueling outage on October 15 at 0700

On October 17 at 0700
• Containment is OPEN
• TAVG is 150 °F
• PZR Level is 10%
• BOTH RHR Pumps have tripped
• The crew has just entered S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 (Loss Of RHR)

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

If the RHR Pumps remain tripped, ___ is the EARLIEST time that the criteria for declaring an Alert per EAL# CA4.1 will be met.
A. 0710
B. 0715
C. 0810
D. 0815
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. Using the provided references, the operator should determine a heat up of 5 °F per minute (2 days after shutdown per before offload curve). Unit 2 will be in MODE 4 (>200 °F) in 10 minutes ((200 - 150) / 5). The RCS is intact. IAW EAL#CA4.1, to meet the criteria of CA4.1 with the RCS intact, RCS must be > 200 °F for 60 minutes. This will occur at 0810.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. 0710 would be the time if the candidate correctly calculated the heatup to 200 °F with a 5 °F / minute heatup rate and incorrectly used a 0 minute duration to meet EAL# CA4.1 criteria (by misinterpreting CA4.1 EAL Table).
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. 0715 would be the time if the candidate incorrectly calculated the heatup to 200 °F with a 3.4 °F / minute heatup rate and incorrectly used a 0 minute duration to meet EAL# CA4.1 criteria (by misinterpreting CA4.1 EAL Table).
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. If the candidate used the wrong heatup curve (after offload curve), then the heatup rate would be 3.4 °F / hr. Therefore, it would then take 15 minutes ((200-150) / 3.4) for the RCS to reach 200 °F. If the candidate then correctly applied 60 minute criteria for meeting CA4.1, this would equate to 0815.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 (Loss Of RHR), EP-SA-111-27, AB.RHR-0001 Attachment 5 (HEATUP RATE FOR LOSS OF RHR COOLING), EA-SA-111-127 EAL# CA4.1 | LO: EMERGENCY COORDINATOR AND DIRECT SUPPORT PERSONNEL DUTIES — Given plant conditions for an emergency, CLASSIFY the event in accordance with the ECG | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q87 — CCW Pump Trip Mode 5 Procedures 008 CCW System - A2.01 (3.3)
Given:
• Unit 2 is in MODE 5 with RCS at Water Elevation 103.5 feet
• ALL CCW Pumps are in service

At time 17:00
• The NCO observes the following indications:
(CCW Lo HDR PRESS ALARM 21 & 22, 22 & 23 CCW Pumps Tripped)

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The crew will perform ___
A. S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 (LOSS OF RHR) ONLY
B. S2.OP-AB.RHR-0002 (LOSS OF RHR AT REDUCED INVENTORY) ONLY
C. S2.OP-AB.CC-0001 (COMPONENT COOLING ABNORMALITY) and S2.OP-AB.RHR-0002 (LOSS OF RHR AT REDUCED INVENTORY) CONCURRENTLY
D. S2.OP-AB.CC-0001 (COMPONENT COOLING ABNORMALITY) and S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 (LOSS OF RHR) CONCURRENTLY
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. Based on indications on the CCW Bezel, 22 and 23 CCW Pumps have tripped which is causing CC Header Low Pressure alarms. IAW the Abnormal procedures network, the crew is required to perform S2.OP-AB.CC-0001 (COMPONENT COOLING ABNORMALITY) and S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 (LOSS OF RHR) CONCURRENTLY.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that only performance of the Loss of RHR is required, since core boiling is a major concern and RCS is at Water Elevation 103.5 feet.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that only performance of the Loss of RHR at reduced inventory is required, since the PZR is empty and core boiling is a major concern.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. This distractor would have been correct if RCS was at Water Elevation of 101 feet or less.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.CC-0001 (COMPONENT COOLING ABNORMALITY), S2.OP-AB.RHR-0001 (LOSS OF RHR), S2.OP-AB.RHR-0002 (LOSS OF RHR AT REDUCED INVENTORY) | LO: Not specified | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q88 — Containment Sump Blockage and CS Pump D/P 026 Containment Spray System - A2.07 (3.9)
Given:
• The crew is performing 2-EOP-LOCA-3 (TRANSFER TO COLD LEG RECIRCULATION)
• Containment Pressure is 23 psig
• RCS Pressure is 50 psig

At time 19:10
• ALL ECCS Pumps are aligned to the Containment Sump

At time 19:15
• Erratic flow and pressure on 21 SI Pump, 21 Charging Pump and 21 RHR Pump is observed

At time 19:20
• Erratic flow and pressure on 22 SI Pump, 22 Charging Pump and 22 RHR Pump is observed

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

At 19:10, the discharge of the _(1)_ Pumps provides the D/P to drive Containment Spray.
At 19:20 and in accordance with 2-EOP-LOCA-3, the crew will IMMEDIATELY transition to _(2)_.
A. (1) RHR (2) 2-EOP-APPX-7 (CONTAINMENT SUMP BLOCKAGE GUIDELINE)
B. (1) RHR (2) 2-EOP-LOCA-5 (LOSS OF EMERGENCY RECIRCULATION)
C. (1) SI (2) 2-EOP-APPX-7 (CONTAINMENT SUMP BLOCKAGE GUIDELINE)
D. (1) SI (2) 2-EOP-LOCA-5 (LOSS OF EMERGENCY RECIRCULATION)
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. For Part 1, at 19:10 the Containment Spray Pumps are taking suction from the outlet of the RHR HXs. For Part 2 and IAW 2-EOP-LOCA-3 (TRANSFER TO COLD LEG RECIRCULATION) CAS, transition to 2-EOP-APPX-7 (CONTAINMENT SUMP BLOCKAGE GUIDELINE) is required "ANYTIME ECCS PUMPS ARE ALIGNED TO THE CONTAINMENT SUMP AND AT LEAST ONE TRAIN OF EMERGENCY COOLANT RECIRCULATION CAN NOT BE MAINTAINED DUE TO INDICATIONS OF CONTAINMENT SUMP BLOCKAGE." Cavitation of ECCS Pumps is an indication of sump blockage per 2-EOP-LOCA-3 Background Document. Consequently, the crew will IMMEDIATELY transition to 2-EOP-APPX-7.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, 2-EOP-LOCA-3 has a transition to 2-EOP-LOCA-5 when "EMERGENCY COOLANT RECIRCULATION CAN NOT BE ESTABLISHED OR MAINTAINED FOR REASONS NOT RELATED TO CONTAINMENT SUMP BLOCKAGE". Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that at 19:20, the crew will IMMEDIATELY transition to 2-EOP-LOCA-5.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that SI pumps provide the D/P to drive Containment Spray. Part 2 is correct.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that SI pumps provide the D/P to drive Containment Spray. For Part 2, 2-EOP-LOCA-3 has a transition to 2-EOP-LOCA-5 when "EMERGENCY COOLANT RECIRCULATION CAN NOT BE ESTABLISHED OR MAINTAINED FOR REASONS NOT RELATED TO CONTAINMENT SUMP BLOCKAGE". Consequently, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that at 19:20, the crew will IMMEDIATELY transition to 2-EOP-LOCA-5.
Ref: 2-EOP-LOCA-3, Training Drawing CS-1 | LO: NOS05LCA3U2-04 — Given 2-EOP-LOCA-3 and a set of plant conditions, determine a discrete path through the EOP and an appropriate transition | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q89 — Vital Bus Inverter LCO 3.0.3 062 AC Electrical Distribution - G2.2.42 (4.6)
REFERENCE PROVIDED

Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power

At time 09:00 on June 12
• The Vital Instrument Bus 2A Inverter is declared inoperable

At time 09:30 on June 12
• The 2A Vital Instrument Bus is now being powered from its alternate power source

At time 12:00 on June 12
• The Vital Instrument Bus 2D Inverter is declared inoperable

At time 12:30 on June 12
• The 2D Vital Instrument Bus is now being powered from its alternate power source

In accordance with Unit 2 Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

If BOTH Inverters remain inoperable, then ___ is the LATEST Time / Date that Unit 2 is required to be in HOT STANDBY.
A. 18:00 on June 12
B. 19:00 on June 12
C. 18:00 on June 13
D. 18:00 on June 15
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. Based on the question stem, at 0900 on June 12, the crew must perform LCO 3.8.2.1 (Required Action A). At 1200 on June 12 and with 2 inverters now inoperable, the crew must now perform LCO 3.0.3 (since there is no REQUIRED ACTION of LCO 3.8.2.1 for 2 inoperable inverters). LCO 3.0.3 requires the Unit to be placed in HOT STANDBY within a maximum of 7 hours (1200 on June 12 + 7 hours = 1900 on June 12).
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. 18:00 on June 12 is the time/date if the candidate correctly determines that LCO 3.0.3 is applicable but incorrectly determines that LCO 3.0.3 allows only 6 hours to be in HOT STANDBY.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. 18:00 on June 13 is the time/date to restore the inverter to OPERABLE status IAW LCO 3.8.2 REQUIRED ACTION B.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. 18:00 on June 15 is the time/date to place the Unit in HOT STANDBY IAW LCO 3.8.2 REQUIRED ACTION B (if 2D Inverter remains inoperable).
Ref: LCO 3.8.2.1, LCO 3.0.3 | LO: NOS05TECHSPEC-12 — Describe the general requirements associated with Specifications 3.0.1 through 3.0.6 | Source: Bank — LOR 2018 Bi-Annual Crew D Written Exam SRO Q33 | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q90 — DC Battery Cell Voltage LCO 3.8.2.3 063 DC Electrical Distribution - A2.01 (3.2)
REFERENCE PROVIDED

Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power

At time 12:00 on January 7th
• Grounds have been detected in a few cells of the 2A 125 VDC Battery
• 3 connected battery cells have a Float Voltage of 0 Volts

In accordance with Unit 2 Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

If ALL 3 connected battery cells continue to have a Float Voltage of 0 Volts, then ___ is the LATEST Date / Time that Unit 2 is required to be in HOT STANDBY.
A. 2000 on January 8th
B. 1800 on January 8th
C. 2000 on January 7th
D. 1800 on January 7th
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. Based on the question stem, at 1200 the 2A 125 VDC battery does not meet the Category B and C limits for 3 connected cells. This puts the Unit in LCO 3.8.2.3 REQUIRED ACTIONS C, D and F. Condition D and F are the most limiting and the crew has 2 hours to restore the battery to OPERABLE status or be within HOT STANDBY within the next 6 hours. Consequently, if ALL 3 connected battery cells continue to have a Float Voltage of 0 Volts, then 2000 (2 + 6 = 8 hours maximum) on January 7th is the LATEST Date/Time that Unit 2 is required to be in HOT STANDBY.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. 2000 on January 8th is the time/date if the candidate incorrectly applies the 24 hours to restore the battery to OPERABLE status IAW LCO 3.8.2.3 REQUIRED ACTION C then applies the 8 hours to place the Unit in HOT SHUTDOWN per LCO 3.8.2.3 REQUIRED ACTION F (if ALL 3 connected battery cells continue to have a Float Voltage of 0 Volts).
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. 1800 on January 8th is the time/date if the candidate incorrectly applies the 24 hours to restore the battery to OPERABLE status IAW LCO 3.8.2.3 REQUIRED ACTION C then incorrectly applies 6 hours to place the Unit in HOT SHUTDOWN per LCO 3.8.2.3 REQUIRED ACTION F (if ALL 3 connected battery cells continue to have a Float Voltage of 0 Volts).
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. 1800 on January 7th is the time/date if the candidate incorrectly interprets LCO 3.8.2.3 REQUIRED ACTION F to only have 6 hours maximum to place the Unit in HOT STANDBY (if ALL 3 connected battery cells continue to have a Float Voltage of 0 Volts).
Ref: LCO 3.8.2.3 | LO: NOS05TECHSPEC-12 — Describe the general component and parameter categories addressed by TS Sections 3/4.1 through 3/4.12 | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q91 — Hydrogen Recombiner EOP-LOCA-1 028 HRPS-A2.03 (4.0)
Given:
REFERENCE PROVIDED

• The crew is performing 1-EOP-LOCA-1 (LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT) Step 24, "Containment Hydrogen Concentration Verification"
• Containment Hydrogen concentration is 0.7%

In accordance with 1-EOP-LOCA-1, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The crew will
A. START ONLY ONE Hydrogen Recombiner by performing S1.OP-SO.CAN-0001 (HYDROGEN RECOMBINER OPERATION) CONCURRENTLY with 1-EOP-LOCA-1
B. START BOTH Hydrogen Recombiners by performing S1.OP-SO.CAN-0001 (HYDROGEN RECOMBINER OPERATION) CONCURRENTLY with 1-EOP-LOCA-1
C. CONTINUE in 1-EOP-LOCA-1 until Containment Hydrogen concentration reaches 4.0%
D. CONSULT TSC for additional recovery actions and REMAIN in 1-EOP-LOCA-1
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. IAW 2-EOP-LOCA-1, the crew will start ONLY one Hydrogen Recombiner when Containment Hydrogen Concentration is greater than 0.5%.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could recognize the need to start the Hydrogen Recombiners based on Containment concentration level, but incorrectly conclude that BOTH Hydrogen Recombiners need to be started.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that 1-EOP-LOCA-1 will be performed until Hydrogen Concentration reaches 4.0%.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Consulting the TSC would have been proper if Containment Concentration was greater than 4.0%.
Ref: 1-EOP-LOCA-1 | LO: NOS05LOCA01-05 (EOP-LOCA-01, LOSS OF REACTOR COOLANT AND LOSS OF COOLANT ACCIDENT ANALYSIS) | Source: Modified Bank | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q92 — Loss of Condenser Vacuum Turbine Trip 055 Condenser Air Removal-G2.4.11 (4.2)
Given:
• The crew is performing S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 (LOSS OF CONDENSER VACUUM) due to a malfunction of the Condenser Air Removal system
• With Condenser Backpressure degrading, Unit 2 Turbine Load is being lowered in an attempt maintain condenser backpressure within the Allowable Operating Region of S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 Attachment 4, Condenser Absolute Pressure Limits

At time 19:00
• Condenser Backpressure has just exceeded the limit of S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 Attachment 4
• Unit 2 is at 45% Reactor Power

At 19:00 and in accordance with S2.OP-AB.COND-0001, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

The crew will TRIP the _(1)_.
After the Reactor/Turbine is tripped, the crew will _(2)_.
A. (1) Reactor (2) NOT perform S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 concurrently with 2-EOP-TRIP-1, Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection
B. (1) Reactor (2) perform S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 concurrently with 2-EOP-TRIP-1, Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection
C. (1) Turbine (2) NOT perform S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 concurrently with S2.OP-AB.TRB-0001, Turbine Trip Below P-9
D. (1) Turbine (2) perform S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 concurrently with S2.OP-AB.TRB-0001, Turbine Trip Below P-9
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. For Part 1 and at 19:00, Reactor Power is 45% which is less than P-9. IAW S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 (LOSS OF CONDENSER VACUUM) CAS, the crew will trip the turbine when Condenser Backpressure exceeds the limit of S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 Attachment 4. For Part 2 and IAW S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 CAS, after the Turbine is tripped, the crew will perform S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 concurrently with S2.OP-AB.TRB-0001, Turbine Trip Below P-9.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, if Reactor Power had been above P-9, tripping the Reactor would have been correct IAW S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 CAS. For Part 2, transitioning to EOP-TRIP-1 and not continuing with S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 is correct if the reactor had been required to be tripped.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, if Reactor Power had been above P-9, tripping the Reactor would have been correct IAW S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 CAS. For Part 2, the candidate could have incorrectly concluded that performing EOP-TRIP-1 and S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 concurrently was required.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that performing S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 concurrently with S2.OP-AB.TRB-0001, Turbine Trip Below P-9 was not required.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.COND-0001 | LO: NOS05ABCOND-05 (LOSS OF CONDENSER VACUUM) | Source: New | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q93 — Loss of Control Air Reactor Trip 079 SAS-A2.01 (3.2)
Given:
• Unit 1 is at 25% Power and stable
• The crew is performing S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 (Loss Of Control Air) due to a leak on the cross connect line between Station Air and the Unit 1 Control Air
• 1A Control Air Header Pressure is 79 psig
• 1B Control Air Header Pressure is 77 psig

In accordance with S1.OP-AB.CA-0001, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The crew's NEXT action will be to
A. CHECK ANY Excess Flow Check Valve closed per S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 Attachment 5 (EXCESS FLOW CHECK VALVE TABLE)
B. TRIP the Reactor and perform 1-EOP-TRIP-1 (Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection) CONCURRENTLY with S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 Attachment 6 (ABNORMAL COOLING WATER LINEUPS)
C. INITIATE a plant shutdown per S1.OP-IO.ZZ-0004 (POWER OPERATION) while CONCURRENTLY performing S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 Attachment 12 (LOCAL CONTROL OF SG PRESSURE AND LEVEL)
D. TRIP the Reactor and perform 1-EOP-TRIP-1 (Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection) CONCURRENTLY with S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 Attachment 12 (LOCAL CONTROL OF SG PRESSURE AND LEVEL)
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. IAW S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 (Loss Of Control Air) CAS, when BOTH Control Air Headers indicate less than 80 psig, the crew's NEXT action will be to TRIP the Reactor and perform 1-EOP-TRIP-1 (Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection) CONCURRENTLY with S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 Attachment 12 (LOCAL CONTROL OF SG PRESSURE AND LEVEL).
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. CHECKING ANY Excess Flow Check Valve closed per S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 Attachment 5 (EXCESS FLOW CHECK VALVE TABLE) is only required when at least one control air header is greater than 80 psig. (S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 Step 3.17)
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Tripping of the Reactor is correct. However, the crew is not required to perform S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 Attachment 6 (ABNORMAL COOLING WATER LINEUPS) since cooling water to Station or Emergency Air Compressors was not lost.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could recognize the need to take the plant offline because BOTH Control Air Headers indicate less than 80 psig. However, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the plant will be shutdown per S1.OP-IO.ZZ-0004 (POWER OPERATION) while CONCURRENTLY performing S1.OP-AB.CA-0001 Attachment 12 (LOCAL CONTROL OF SG PRESSURE AND LEVEL).
Ref: S2.OP-AB.CA-0001 | LO: NOS05ABCA01-07 (LOSS OF CONTROL AIR) | Source: Modified Bank (ILOT 16-01 SRO Q18) | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q94 — STA Staffing Requirements G2.1.5 (3.2)
Given:
• Units 1 and 2 are at 100% Power
• John Doe is a licensed SRO who is also a qualified STA

In accordance with Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

John Doe _(1)_ fill the STA minimum staffing requirement on Unit 1 and Unit 2 concurrently.

John Doe _(2)_ fill the STA minimum staffing requirement on Unit 2 while concurrently filling the SRO minimum staffing requirement on Unit 2.

(1)(2)
A. (1) may NOT (2) may
B. (1) may NOT (2) may NOT
C. (1) may (2) may
D. (1) may (2) may NOT
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW TS Table 6.2-1, while fulfilling the STA minimum staffing requirement on Unit 2, John Doe may fill the STA minimum staffing requirement on Unit 1. For Part 2 and IAW TS Table 6.2-1, while fulfilling the STA minimum staffing requirement on Unit 2, John Doe may concurrently fill the SRO minimum staffing requirement on Unit 2.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that John Doe may not fill the STA minimum staffing requirement on Unit 1 and Unit 2 concurrently. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that John Doe may not fill the STA minimum staffing requirement on Unit 1 and Unit 2 concurrently. For Part 2, the candidate may incorrectly conclude that John Doe may not fill the STA minimum staffing requirement on Unit 2 while concurrently filling the SRO minimum staffing requirement on Unit 2.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate may incorrectly conclude that John Doe may not fill the STA minimum staffing requirement on Unit 2 while concurrently filling the SRO minimum staffing requirement on Unit 2.
Ref: TS Table 6.2-1 | LO: NOS05TECHSPEC-12 (TECHNICAL SPECIFICATIONS) | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q95 — PORV Block Valve Configuration Control G2.2.14 (3.2)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Power

At time 17:55
• An LCO 3.4.5 (RELIEF VALVES) REQUIRED ACTION has been entered due to a failure of the 2PR2 (PZR PORV) control circuitry.
• 2PR7 (PZR PORV BLOCK VALVE) will be closed to comply with LCO 3.4.5 (RELIEF VALVES) REQUIRED ACTION B

Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

In accordance with LCO 3.4.5 and after 2PR7 has been closed, power will be _(1)_ to 2PR7 and in accordance with OP-AA-108-101-1002 (COMPONENT CONFIGURATION CONTROL), configuration control will be INITIALLY maintained with a(n) _(2)_.
A. (1) maintained (2) Work Clearance Document (WCD)
B. (1) maintained (2) Abnormal Component Position Sheet (ACPS)
C. (1) removed (2) Work Clearance Document (WCD)
D. (1) removed (2) Abnormal Component Position Sheet (ACPS)
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW LCO 3.4.5, after 2PR7 has been closed, power will be removed to 2PR7. For Part 2 and IAW OP-AA-108-101-1002 (COMPONENT CONFIGURATION CONTROL), an Abnormal Component Position Sheet (ACPS) will be used to position 2PR7 since removing power from 2PR7 is a 1 hour or less TS REQUIRED ACTION.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, if 2PR7 was inoperable due to excess seat leakage, the power would be maintained to 2PR7 (IAW LCO 3.4.5). For Part 2 and IAW OP-AA-108-101-1002, a WCD will be hung on the components as soon as practical after the TS is entered.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, if 2PR7 was inoperable due to excess seat leakage, the power would be maintained to 2PR7 (IAW LCO 3.4.5). Part 2 is correct.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2 and IAW OP-AA-108-101-1002, a WCD will be hung on the components as soon as practical after the TS is entered.
Ref: LCO 3.4.5, OP-AA-108-101-1002 (COMPONENT CONFIGURATION CONTROL) | LO: N/A | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q96 — Radiation Monitoring LCO 3.3.3.1 G2.2.42 (4.6)
Given:
REFERENCE PROVIDED

• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power and stable
• The crew is performing S2.OP-SO.CBV-0002 (Containment Pressure - Vacuum Relief System Operation) Section 5.3, "Performing a Containment Vacuum Relief"
• 2R12A (CNTMT NOBLE GAS) and 2R41D (PLANT VENT NOBLE GAS RELEASE RATE) have BOTH just failed

In accordance with Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following completes the statement below?

LCO 3.3.3.1 (RADIATION MONITORING INSTRUMENTATION) is __
A. NOT met and the crew must perform Action 24 ONLY
B. NOT met and the crew must perform Action 26 ONLY
C. NOT met and the crew must perform Actions 24 and 26
D. met because redundant radiation monitors are OPERABLE
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. When analyzing LCO 3.3.3.1 against the given plant conditions, the candidate will need to analyze Table 3.3-6. To properly analyze Table 3.3-6, the candidate must also know information contained in the Bases of LCO 3.3.3.1. 2R12A is the credited monitor to meet the Table 3.3-6 requirements of 2.a.1.a (Containment - Gaseous Activity - Purge & Pressure Vacuum Relief Isolation) and 2.a.1.b (Containment - Gaseous Activity - RCS Leak Detection). Since S2.OP-SO.CBV-0002 (Containment Pressure - Vacuum Relief System Operation) Section 5.3, "Performing a Containment Vacuum Relief" is in progress, 2R41 (2R41A, B and D) can also be used to meet the requirements of Table 3.3-6 requirements of 2.a.1.a (Containment - Gaseous Activity - Purge & Pressure Vacuum Relief Isolation). Consequently, with 2R12A and 2R41D failed, LCO 3.3.3.1 (RADIATION MONITORING INSTRUMENTATION) is NOT met and the crew must perform Actions 24 and 26.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could correctly conclude that 2R12A only meets the Table 3.3-6 requirements of 2.a.1.a (Containment - Gaseous Activity - Purge & Pressure Vacuum Relief Isolation) and 2.a.1.b (Containment - Gaseous Activity - RCS Leak Detection). However, the candidate could then incorrectly conclude that only one 2R41 channel is required to be an alternate monitor to meet Table 3.3-6 requirements of 2.a.1.a (Containment - Gaseous Activity - Purge & Pressure Vacuum Relief Isolation). This would cause the candidate to incorrectly conclude that the crew would only be required to perform Action 24.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. The candidate could incorrectly conclude that with 2R12A and 2R41D failed that the Table 3.3-6 requirements of 2.a.1.a (Containment - Gaseous Activity - Purge & Pressure Vacuum Relief Isolation) is not met. This would cause the candidate to incorrectly conclude that the crew would only be required to perform Action 26.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Since there are multiple 2R12s (2R12A, 2R12B, 2R12C) and multiple 2R41s (A-D), the candidate could incorrectly conclude that LCO 3.3.3.1 is met with ONLY a failure of 2R12A and 2R41D.
Ref: Technical Specifications, LCO 3.3.3.1 | LO: NOS05CONTMT-15 (CONTAINMENT AND CONTAINMENT SUPPORT SYSTEMS) | Source: Modified Bank (ILOT 16-01 NRC SRO 014) | Cognitive: Higher

Connections

Q97 — Emergency Exposure PEEL G2.3.4 (3.7)
Given:
• A General Emergency exists at Unit 2
• The SM has turned over Emergency Coordinator duties to the EDO

In accordance with NC.EP-EP.ZZ-0304 (OPERATIONAL SUPPORT CENTER (OSC) RADIATION PROTECTION RESPONSE), which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The Planned Emergency Exposure Limit (PEEL) for life saving is _(1)_ REM.

The EDO _(2)_ can approve the emergency exposure.
A. (1) 25 (2) ONLY
B. (1) 25 (2) or SM
C. (1) 75 (2) ONLY
D. (1) 75 (2) or SM
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ C. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW NC.EP-EP.ZZ-0304 (OPERATIONAL SUPPORT CENTER (OSC) RADIATION PROTECTION RESPONSE), the Planned Emergency Exposure Limit (PEEL) for life saving is 75 REM. For Part 2 and IAW NC.EP-EP.ZZ-0304, Emergency Coordinator authorization that requires Emergency Exposure for LIFE SAVING TASKS should be done verbally.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 25 REM is Planned Emergency Exposure Limit (PEEL) for accident mitigation. Part 2 is correct.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 25 REM is Planned Emergency Exposure Limit (PEEL) for accident mitigation. For Part 2, since the SM served as the interim EDO, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the SM and EDO can approve the emergency exposure.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, since the SM served as the interim EDO, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that the SM and EDO can approve the emergency exposure.
Ref: NC.EP-EP.ZZ-0304 (OPERATIONAL SUPPORT CENTER (OSC) RADIATION PROTECTION RESPONSE) | LO: N/A | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q98 — Locked High Radiation Area IV Waiver G2.3.7 (3.6)
Given:
• An NEO has signed onto a RWP to perform an Independent Verification (IV) on a manual gate valve located inside a Locked High Radiation Area (LHRA)
• RP estimates that the operator would receive a dose of 15 mrem while performing the IV

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

In accordance with RP-AA-460 (CONTROLS FOR HIGH AND VERY HIGH RADIATION AREAS), an LHRA has a MINIMUM dose rate of _(1)_ mrem/hr @ 30 cm.

In accordance with OP-AA-108-101-1002 (COMPONENT CONFIGURATION CONTROL) and based on the estimated dose of 15 mrem to perform the IV, the Shift Manager is _(2)_ to waive the "Hands On" IV of the manual gate valve.
A. (1) 100 (2) NOT permitted
B. (1) 100 (2) permitted
C. (1) 1000 (2) NOT permitted
D. (1) 1000 (2) permitted
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ D. Correct. For Part 1 and in accordance with RP-AA-460 (CONTROLS FOR HIGH AND VERY HIGH RADIATION AREAS), an LHRA has a MINIMUM dose rate of 1000 mrem/hr @ 30 cm. For Part 2 and in accordance with OP-AA-108-101-1002 (COMPONENT CONFIGURATION CONTROL) and based on the estimated dose of 15 mrem to perform the IV, the Shift Manager is permitted to waive the "Hands On" IV of the manual gate valve.
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 100 mrem/hr is the limit for posting the area as a High Radiation Area.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, 100 mrem/hr is the limit for posting the area as a High Radiation Area.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the candidate could incorrectly conclude that for an estimated dose of 15 mrem, the Shift Manager can not waive the "Hands On" IV of the manual gate valve.
Ref: RP-AA-460 (CONTROLS FOR HIGH AND VERY HIGH RADIATION AREAS), OP-AA-108-101-1002 (COMPONENT CONFIGURATION CONTROL) | LO: N/A | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q99 — CR Evacuation SI Defeat G2.4.35 (4.0)
Given:
• Unit 2 is at 100% Reactor Power and stable

At time 02:00:00
• The crew enters S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 (Control Room Evacuation)

At time 02:01:00
• The Control Room has been evacuated and ALL of the Immediate Actions of S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 were successfully completed
• There is NO damage to the plant

In accordance with S2.OP-AB.CR-0001, which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

The SM will direct Safety Injection to be defeated by ___
A. inserting a jumper to P-11 and, before leaving the control room, placing SEC Block switches in Block per S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 Attachment 5 (REACTOR OPERATOR)
B. opening vital instrument bus breakers to de-energize SSPS and the SEC cabinets per S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 Attachment 7 (#1 NEO)
C. inserting a jumper for P-11 and opening vital instrument bus breakers to de-energize SECs S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 Attachment 5 (REACTOR OPERATOR)
D. opening vital instrument bus breakers to de-energize SSPS and before leaving the control room, placing the SEC Block switches in Block per S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 Attachment 7 (#1 NEO)
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ B. Correct. The SM will direct Safety Injection to be defeated by opening vital instrument bus breakers to de-energize SSPS and the SEC cabinets per S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 Attachment 7 (#1 NEO).
✗ A. Incorrect but plausible. The RO would normally operate the SEC block switches from the control room and blocking the SECs would defeat Safety Injection.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. This distractor is partially correct.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. This distractor is partially correct.
Ref: S2.OP-AB.CR-0001 (Control Room Evacuation) | LO: NOS05ABCR01-05 (CONTROL ROOM EVACUATION) | Source: New | Cognitive: Lower

Connections

Q100 — Emergency PAR Default G2.4.38 (4.4)
Given:
REFERENCE PROVIDED

At time 08:00
• The Shift Manager has declared a SITE AREA EMERGENCY per FB1.L and RB1.L, "Loss of the Fuel Clad Barrier and Loss of Reactor Coolant System Barrier"

At time 08:45
• Operational conditions have deteriorated
• The Shift Manager/Emergency Director has declared a GENERAL EMERGENCY per FB1.L, RB1.L and CB1.L, "Loss of the Fuel Clad Barrier, Loss of Reactor Coolant System Barrier and Loss Of Containment Barrier" (13 PTS)
• R44A/B (Containment High Range Area Monitors) are reading 1000 R/hr

At time 08:55
• The Shift Manager/Emergency Director has completed the Initial Contact Message Form (ICMF) and the form has been verified by the STA

At time 09:50
• A wind shift has occurred and the SM is evaluating the need for a possible Protective Action Recommendation (PAR) Upgrade

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?

At 08:55, the correct INITIAL PAR on the ICMF should be the _(1)_ PAR.

Based on the wind shift at 09:50, the SM will declare _(2)_ PAR Upgrade.
A. (1) Default (2) NO
B. (1) Default (2) an RPSA
C. (1) RPSA (2) an RPSA
D. (1) RPSA (2) NO
▶ Show Answer & Explanation
✓ A. Correct. For Part 1 and IAW EP-SA-111-F4 Attachment 4 (Appendix 1), the correct PAR is the Default PAR. For Part 2 and IAW EP-SA-111-F4 Attachment 4 (Appendix 1), NO PAR Upgrade is required.
✗ B. Incorrect but plausible. Part 1 is correct. For Part 2, the operator could incorrectly apply IAW EP-SA-111-F4 Attachment 4 (Appendix 1), and determine that an RPSA PAR Upgrade is required.
✗ C. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the operator could incorrectly use the flow chart and incorrectly determine the RPSA PAR is required. For Part 2, the operator could incorrectly apply IAW EP-SA-111-F4 Attachment 4 (Appendix 1), and determine that an RPSA PAR Upgrade is required.
✗ D. Incorrect but plausible. For Part 1, the operator could incorrectly use the flow chart and incorrectly determine the RPSA PAR is required. Part 2 is correct.
Ref: EP-SA-111-F4 | LO: NEPECDTYSC-4 (Emergency Preparedness Training) | Source: Bank (ILOT 16-01 AUDIT SRO Q25) | Cognitive: Higher

Connections